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excaza
QUOTE (excaza+Jul 5 2008, 03:02 PM)
Use your model to explain the pioneer anomaly, Mr. "nobel laureate"

Stop dodging.
DavidD
Okey. From where comes entanglement effect? From interference of reflected paths of waves!!! When times goes slowly all waves going with same phase shift untill measurment!!! Thus there is reflected waves interference with passing all time and there thus sometimes is in one detector interference and sometimes in over. On average without any entanglement result must mach 75%, interference filling all over 25% and thus result mach 100%!!! Some 10% may be errors or maybe not...
DavidD
Okey. Quantum loosers probably wondering, what impact my theory have on quantum computers? Well at curent state of my theory, it states, that entanglement error always is 12.5%. And imposible to remove this errors, becouse it actualy is not errors. thus entanglement is like entanglement, but it have errors...hmm... For quantum computer don't need errors... And such big... So my theory predicts, that quantum computer is imposible, becouse with 10 qubits erros will overcome signal. this will probably be even with 5 qubits. laugh.gif biggrin.gif
WHO is genius?
I! cool.gif
DavidD
Borh theory is wrong. Atom radiating not only quantized energy of waves - "photons", but radiating waves of any lenght! Electron have charge and have icentrical acceleration and thus radiating magnetic waves and also then falling into proton (in hydrogen atom). Thus any atom radiating waves of any wavelenght -frenquency. When electron faliing into proton then he producing neutron if spins match and after spins disturbation, neutron decaying into proton and electron. What is wrong with Borh model? because imposibel to chack it. Supose helium atoms radiating quantized waves then with difraction you can check it wavelenght, but you can trust only in your eyes. You can put prizme and to see, what lines where is and you will see, that there is combination of lines, which for you eyes will be like one ~whait. So to you need some detectors. But how those detectors to say to you what they seen? So for you need photoefect. But how photoefect will say, how much there was absorbed red and blue and in what quantities?
So borh quantized theory imposible to prove!!!
There no any quantization and all this stuf is mixed waves with any amplitudes and frenquency waves. Waves can pull electron to nuclear even closer of farther and at any angle! Thus quantum mechanic is unproved bulshitism!!! Yes, maxwell, you hear me, electron radiating electromagnetic waves when falling into nuclear!!!
There is only two types of matter: waves and particles - particles are transmiters of waves etc, and waves are transmiter of energy...
BTW, theory of debroglie may be right, that electron say at bigger speed is like faster vibrating wave and fluctations of universe, weaker disturbing him, when he is heavier...
DavidD
I even laser can explain without any quantizations. Principle is simple. There is very small hole and very much waves are inserted and then this waves all can't very fast go out, becouse they will not excide (in my theory waves with infinity speed traveling, but need many waves to excide) metal in which they will shoot, thus they inductings and going small-big amount energy through small hole. Going not all energy, but after some time - all. Very simple! For lasers don't need Borh model, but enough classical model and my theory. It's like pumping in very big amount of energy and it coming out through small hole - this is lazer principle and don't need quantized myracles laugh.gif
excaza
QUOTE (excaza+Jul 5 2008, 03:02 PM)
Use your model to explain the pioneer anomaly, Mr. "nobel laureate"

Still waiting.
DavidD
QUOTE (excaza+Jul 6 2008, 02:27 PM)
Still waiting.

Okey, I sow a little bit about this anomaly of half of eye. So I think it is electromagnetic waves resistance, which pushing two planets from each over, two objects...

Now on my theory. How there grass is green and flouwers red? Well, becouse there waves spreading equaly, but some atoms have diferent electrons configuration, which more tend to radiate some favorit coloure most. Thus it's explains, why grass is green. Atoms in grass, more precisly electrons have smaller angular speed and so on and this stability of electrons to move them with some waves and acelerate them or absorb, it's all depending on wave energy and they possibilities.
ANyway if this theory part is wrong then nothing at all is wrong.
Delia
QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 6 2008, 03:12 PM)
Okey, I sow a little bit about this anomaly of half of eye. So I think it is electromagnetic waves resistance, which pushing two planets from each over, two objects...

Now on my theory. How there grass is green and flouwers red? Well, becouse there waves spreading equaly, but some atoms have diferent electrons configuration, which more tend to radiate some favorit coloure most. Thus it's explains, why grass is green. Atoms in grass, more precisly electrons have smaller angular speed and so on and this stability of electrons to move them with some waves and acelerate them or absorb, it's all depending on wave energy and they possibilities.
ANyway if this theory part is wrong then nothing at all is wrong.

If Evil Rupert doesn't, out of profound humanitarian reasons 'put you to sleep', I will fuckdumb! mad.gif
DavidD
QUOTE (Delia+Jul 6 2008, 03:21 PM)
If Evil Rupert doesn't, out of profound humanitarian reasons 'put you to sleep', I will fuckdumb! mad.gif

You should be in summer beach for a wail, becouse of my briliant theory.
Delia
QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 6 2008, 03:45 PM)
You should be in summer beach for a wail, becouse of my briliant theory.

You should be in a gas chamber for your evilfuck stupidity, all your math tripe reminds me of Chinese hors d'oeuvres ....... Dim Sums! laugh.gif

Cretinous kid! dry.gif
DavidD
QUOTE (Delia+Jul 6 2008, 03:21 PM)
If Evil Rupert doesn't, out of profound humanitarian reasons 'put you to sleep', I will fuckdumb! mad.gif

You should be in summer beach for a wail, becouse of my briliant theory.
Delia
QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 6 2008, 03:56 PM)
I'm a brain damaged, pretending cuntard wannabe twat.

Agreed.
DavidD
I now so hapy with my theory, that it explain entanglement, that bothering somothing to do more... rolleyes.gif cool.gif
Also ask some question about polarization of ortoganal waves, does they interfere or not and seems all "profesionals" don't know this laugh.gif
AlphaNumeric
Use your 'theory' to answer questions from here : http://www.damtp.cam.ac.uk/user/examples/D19d.pdf

Particularly question 7.
DavidD
QUOTE (AlphaNumeric+Jul 6 2008, 04:40 PM)
Use your 'theory' to answer questions from here : http://www.damtp.cam.ac.uk/user/examples/D19d.pdf

Particularly question 7.

Use thermodinamic law!! laugh.gif laugh.gif laugh.gif tongue.gif All schrodinger equation is proved no more than cualshit.
I am saying, that even borh theory can't be prved and you puting your stupid mumbojumbo equaitons. When electron spins, it radiating electromagnetic waves, becouse of angular spining icentric acceleration and thus he waisting his energy, but electron realy can spin faster than ligh acording to my theory, becouse speed of light is infinity and only amount of energy is finity... Neutron consist of proton and electron and thus neutron have spin. Neutrinos don't exist.
As I said each atom radiates some waves becouse of more or less faster or slower electrons.
Particles to us can travel with infinity speed... Maybe not and electron spin is not rotation... But still my theory in all is right.
Electrons falling into nuclear and radiating electromagnetic waves adn all phey absorbing waves of any lenght, but diferent number of electrons in atom absorbing and radiating diferently and it's explains all colourse without quantized borht theory na d without scrodinger equation. this all quantizations in schrodinger equation are wrong.
AlphaNumeric
QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 6 2008, 06:06 PM)
I am saying, that even borh theory can't be prved

http://www.physforum.com/index.php?showtop...ndpost&p=355046

By your own statements, you know your 'theory' cannot be proved either. But if your theory is right, there shouldn't be a system involving photons and electrons you cannot model. I asked you do show that, you failed.

All of the systems in those questions I linked to can be modelled by quantum mechanics. Your 'theory' isn't even able to beat quantum mechanics.

You fail.
DavidD
QUOTE (AlphaNumeric+Jul 6 2008, 05:23 PM)
http://www.physforum.com/index.php?showtop...ndpost&p=355046

By your own statements, you know your 'theory' cannot be proved either. But if your theory is right, there shouldn't be a system involving photons and electrons you cannot model. I asked you do show that, you failed.

All of the systems in those questions I linked to can be modelled by quantum mechanics. Your 'theory' isn't even able to beat quantum mechanics.

You fail.

Current theory can nothing model evier. It's just iliusion, that it can somthing model!!! laugh.gif laugh.gif laugh.gif
I at least giving simpler explanation of all this.
DavidD
Okey!
Here is theory, that particles can move with infinity speed, but we faster they going the more time slowing down, acording to some rule/formula: t_0/(1-(v/c))^0.5. Where c is constant c=infinty. v can be also infinty, but time will slowing down. Mass don't increasing and mass have energy 0.5*m_0*(c*v)^2. thus there only is time dilation and no mass increasing! Mass absorbation is very long process, becouse time going slowly, thus need very much time untill absorbed mass 'revibrates' and will give energy to detector. This process is very slowly, becouse time almost stoped. Or if time not stoped say if the are on smallest possible speed and to us flying electron with speed 3*10^20 m/s, then this electron obviously will destroy us. Thus only about 10^10 m/s electrons not dangerous. Actualy even 10^15 m/s. But why we them detecting so slowly if they flying so fast? Well, becouse they have very much energy and this energy can't be retrived in short time. you would say: why? Becouse will be aceleration of our detectors and at all detectors there is real particles... Well maybe wrong somthing with this assumption.
but at least seems, that speed of light is infinity, but with many waves and need wait many waves untill will be geted detected answer... Thus this formula 1/(1-(v/c))^0.5 actualy nothing to do with speed of light, but with waves amplitude c... Thus my asumption is that particles can't travel faster than speed 300000 km/s, but waves traveling with infinity speed! But need some constant amount of energy, which can be detected. Thus there comes many many waves, which spreading over all detector until producing some photoefect and can be detected "photon". Nor my theory nor theory about finit light speed can be proved or unproved! But my theory states, that speed of light is infinty and speed of particles can't be infinity. Thus with my theory is so simple to explain entanglement!!!!!!! And my theory don't changing any over things, except about ligh induction in detector. Think in this way. In detector there coming many waves and those waves many times exciding electrons and protons, some going through. they very slowly exciding electrons, but they going higgher and higger until they "making" photoefect and are detected with detector!!!
THUS I NOW EXPLAIN ENTANGLEMENT!
AND BORH model is wrong.
DavidD
Okey. how about this? light and matter can move with infinity speed, but matter flying at speed infinity arbitrary close to infinity? But this without mumbo jumbo means, that ligh traveling not at infinity speed and matter also. So I already give explanation in over thread.

Okey. Now I must kill schrodinger equation, seeems. So scrodinger equation based on electrons configuration, but all electrons at same energy taking same amount of energy and obeing similar prety... Thus in each chemical reaction, where all matter and atoms absroing equaly all wavelenghts and amplitude waves, but all atoms are configured diferently , I mean all electrons is configured diferently, becouse each atom have diferent number of electrons and thus it's explains why one atoms reacting diferently with over atoms.. This is beacause, some atoms... I think you understood already... Thus long waves don't making benzine explode, becouse they acting similarly on many atoms and they simple are too weak and electrons faster will fall into nuclears... But schort waves can explod benzine, because some small amount of atoms is inducted and there becoming transition of one atoms/electrons(proably) to another and this electrons some becouse of resonanse falling into nuclears and thus fusing and producing many energy, then they again radiated, becosue of neutrons spin dephaseing and electron decaying into proton and electron and there is energy lossing and produced over molecules atoms... They going on into air and spreading... Okey, now let's talk about such stable matter like water, which seems, don't decaying into over matterials or molecules... hydrogen and oxyden atoms very goodly conected with/by electrons and thus if some few atoms going into over molecules or decaying or nuclear neutrons protons transformations, it's don't changing subject and in major point there very strong electrons configuration mach between atoms... Thus water is very stable. And schrodinger equatino I think nothing explain but it is based on electrons configuration and not on some waves shmaves of electrons and not on some phases shmazes. Schrodinger equatino just inven bike laugh.gif But it is mostly wrong.
So you don't have any proves to debunk my theory, becouse everything is very unclear about atoms. And there http://www.physforum.com/index.php?showtop...45&#entry355178 I explaine entanglement! Heh, I change all physics! laugh.gif tongue.gif cool.gif I must get nobel prize at least for entanglement explanation. mad.gif
DavidD
Okey, here benzine working principle. There short waves inducing benzine and separating benzine atoms or molecules, wich then fusse with oxygen and is produced amount of eneryg, becouse with oxyden there stronger electrons connections...
Trippy
You're making less sense then usual.
Sinister Utopia
QUOTE (Trippy+Jul 7 2008, 09:09 AM)
You're making less sense then usual.

Imposibole! biggrin.gif
DavidD
QUOTE (Trippy+Jul 7 2008, 09:09 AM)
You're making less sense then usual.

This is my second theory. The first one and most important is theory about explaining enetnaglement. But this theory making sense. No less tahn schrodinger equation... Just need to remove phases, or maybe even to leave phases ohmy.gif
Anyway, my theory that diferent colourse are diferent electron falling speed into nuclear of diferent atoms becouse of diferent distance of electrons and diferent configurations... And all waves spreading equaly onto all atoms...

New discovery. Neutron don't have spin or have it 1. There imposible to measure neutron spin, becouse it weakly interacting with environment and atoms. Also one neutrons spins may disturb over spins and thus neutron spin can be unprecised if many eneutrons are trying to bomborded some nuclear to see protons from them...
Another "uncertainty" in quantum meachanic laugh.gif
DavidD
QUOTE (Sinister Utopia+Jul 7 2008, 09:25 AM)
Imposibole! biggrin.gif

That's right!
P.S. I don't like spin and maybe it even don't exist, becouse of plenty hard confirming it in my model, hahahha laugh.gif When what's holding nucleons and what making neutron? Well, possible either proton mass is twice bigger or there realy is this strange nuclear forces or neutron is traped between protons(nuclear) and electrons cool.gif Why then holding protons? Strong forces maybe? huh.gif Why uranium devidings? becouse of strong neutron kinetic energy... dry.gif Why over atoms don't divides? becouse of electrons shells, maybe electrons traping protons? Uranium division is protons kinetic energy going from traps? Over atoms more stabel...
DavidD
Okey, here is theory, why electrons don't falling into nuclaer. Each electron, when flying radiating electromagnetic waves, which inducting or pushing electrons and thus loosed energy (in electromagnetic waves phorm) electrons again receiving from over electrons. Even one atom don't colapsing into neutrons, becouse he always receiving electromagnetic waves from over electrons in atom and from environment (atoms in cosmos maybe colapsing into neutrons, who know? wink.gif ). But neutrons can decay into protons and atoms becouse of spins (maybe not after 15 minutes, but years, becouse of small electroamgnetic waves in cosmos and magnetism...).
Over version, that possible that electrons always falling into nuclears, but they then becoming neutrons with protons, and neutrons then decaying and this cicle rotates.
Electrons absorbing and emiting favorit frenquency more than over frenquencies, becouse of diferent coloumb forces in diferent atoms and thus there is diferent acelerations, diferent speed of electrons in diferent distance orbits...
This new atom theory good deals with my relativistic explanation of entanglement, without nonsensial faster than speed of light. About wavefunction colapse I even don't talking, becouse it is even may be wrong for quantized atoms (and you can't prove oposit). So waves are waves and they never colapsing to particles ("photons" (actualy waves) bounce probably can't produce particles like protons).
DavidD
sad.gif Okey, I found way, how to check which lenght waves are radiates by any matter. Scheme is simple, just need prizme, which devide light into many colourse and this long line of colourse need to put onto katod for photoefect and if there is photoefect in some only small regions, then it's means, that light realy is quantized. And now I think that sciencisst no so stupid and make such experiment bilions of times. With absorbtion and emision everything is very similar... BUT there is such thing likelight going through matter and loosing energy, becouse of light momentum h*f/c and roughly after about 3*10^8 particles photon must loose his energy or maybe not, becouse, when ligh frenquency is smaller then momentum also, so at least must loose half energy and then how atom supose to absorb green shifter to red? Or atom can absorb roughly some lines? Or there very small amount waves of loosing they energy to protons and electrons and neutrons, that there almost no need, becouse particles are very small to compare with emty space? So this mystery is + for my theory don't matter how stupid it sounds. And my theory possible can explain photons aborbtion of some lenghts, becouse they very good traped are into electrons shells blink.gif So current theory is a little bit inconsistence.

And here is my postulat, that atoms radaiting "photons" (which is actualy waves) of quantized (roughly) frenquency at same speed in all relativistic sistems (don't matter with what speed you flying with 0.1c or with 0.9999999c). This asumption explaining entanglement, but to detect in relativistic speed photons is harder, becouse need many waves momentum gives to electrons to makde photoefect, becouse electrons in relativistic speed are heavier. So detectors in over words in relativistic speed are less sensitive (but this don't means, that atoms radiating or absorbing slower "photons").!! cool.gif ph34r.gif For this work I asking nobel prize, becouse it very simply and logicaly explaining entanglement.
DavidD
Atoms radiation based on principle "radiate what we have", this means, that atom radiating or absorbing many waves sumed amplitude, so single atom can absorb amplitude of say green colour of any size or if this is not true then atom can radiate and absorb wave(s) amplitude only of certain size, but this all don't changing my theory at all. Not absorbed wave is reflected or difracted and going to over atoms. Or atom can absorb and reflect amplidute of waves only from infinity small amplitude to certain size amplitude, this one makes most sense.
But all this theory says, that there no need and no wave function colapse!!! All waves are waves and no any stupid photons! And dealing at all with relativistic theory of atom, that it radiating and absorbing waves with same speed in any his moving speed, this means, that atom itself is not fully relativistic and that his one part "m" is relativistic and over part "c^2" is non-realtivistic! Thus atom is particulary wave and particulary particle. Sceptic may say, but it's steel like infinity fast wavefunction colapse or like entanglement infinity speed. My answer: But there no faster than light "magic"! There no faster than ligh colapse or entanglement, there is only c speed efects!!!
Trippy
QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 7 2008, 09:30 PM)
This is my second theory. The first one and most important is theory about explaining enetnaglement. But this theory making sense. No less tahn schrodinger equation...


The schroedinger equation makes sense, you just don't understand it. The Schroedinger equation describes a standing wave, that's all.

It's also relatively simple (IIRC).

Ĥψ=ÊΨ

It's the solutions that are complicated.

QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 7 2008, 09:30 PM)
Just need to remove phases, or maybe even to leave phases ohmy.gif


But experiment says the phases are real (as are electron spins).

QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 7 2008, 09:30 PM)
Anyway, my theory that diferent colourse are diferent electron falling speed into nuclear of diferent atoms becouse of diferent distance of electrons and diferent configurations...


Wrong. Electrons don't really fall.

QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 7 2008, 09:30 PM)
And all waves spreading equaly onto all atoms...


This doesn't make a whole lot of sense.

QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 7 2008, 09:30 PM)
New discovery.  Neutron don't have spin or have it 1.


Experiment says it has spin 1/2.

QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 7 2008, 09:30 PM)
There imposible to measure neutron spin, becouse it weakly interacting with environment and atoms.


I can assure you, it's quite measurable.

QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 7 2008, 09:30 PM)
Also one neutrons spins may disturb over spins and thus neutron spin can be unprecised if many eneutrons are trying to bomborded some nuclear to see protons from them...
Another "uncertainty" in quantum meachanic  laugh.gif


Experiment suggests otherwise.
DavidD
You a "little bit" tolate, but...
QUOTE
But experiment says the phases are real (as are electron spins).

What experiments? Electron difraction? But it can be electron scatering over nuclear.
QUOTE (->
QUOTE
But experiment says the phases are real (as are electron spins).

What experiments? Electron difraction? But it can be electron scatering over nuclear.
Wrong. Electrons don't really fall.

How you can check it?
QUOTE
Experiment says it has spin 1/2.

Waht experiment can measure neutron spin? Ok maybe can. Why all are so interested in bullshitles part of my pretheory..?
QUOTE (->
QUOTE
Experiment says it has spin 1/2.

Waht experiment can measure neutron spin? Ok maybe can. Why all are so interested in bullshitles part of my pretheory..?
I can assure you, it's quite measurable.

Of course, neutron can strocke into atoms and then protons measurable and... Why you don't understand entanglement?
QUOTE
Experiment suggests otherwise.

Of course they can't disturb, becouse external magnetic field is stronger...


This is my artifacts of old theory which was in phase of rexamination...
This all is wrong in current state...

If you so smart then answer how atoms absorbing quantized frenquency electromagnetic waves, but this waves going through matter loosing they energy and becoming of shorter wavelenght? thus for example if there red ligh was emited of 700 nm and it go a little bit through matter and it wavelenght become 699.9999 nm and how supose, how can again the same atom absorb such wave? Becouse quantum mechanic states, that atoms absorbing and emiting quantized waves, but seems, that there is diferent between 700 nm and 699.9999 nm, huh?
Trippy
QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 7 2008, 09:45 PM)
That's right!
P.S. I don't like spin and maybe it even don't exist,


So what? I don't like Christian Fundamentalists, or Asparagus, and they both still exist.

QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 7 2008, 09:45 PM)
becouse of plenty hard confirming it in my model, hahahha laugh.gif


Actually, you have yet to produce a shred of evidence to support your ramblings.


QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 7 2008, 09:45 PM)
When what's holding nucleons and what making neutron?


Strong nuclear force holds Nucleons together, Quarks make up a Neutron (U-D-D).

QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 7 2008, 09:45 PM)
Well, possible either proton mass is twice bigger


No, it isn't, this is something we can measure experimentaly.

QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 7 2008, 09:45 PM)
or there realy is this strange nuclear forces


It's not that strange.

QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 7 2008, 09:45 PM)
or neutron is traped between protons(nuclear) and electrons


No, this model was tested, then abandoned.

QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 7 2008, 09:45 PM)
cool.gif Why then holding protons? Strong forces maybe? huh.gif


Yes.

QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 7 2008, 09:45 PM)
Why uranium devidings?


Because it's energetically favourable, and Uranium is unstable.


QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 7 2008, 09:45 PM)
becouse of strong neutron kinetic energy...


this only represents one decay mode.

QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 7 2008, 09:45 PM)
dry.gif Why over atoms don't divides?


Because they're not unstable, and it's not energetically favourable.

QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 7 2008, 09:45 PM)
becouse of electrons shells, maybe electrons traping protons?  Uranium division is protons kinetic energy going from traps?  Over atoms more stabel...


No.
\
DavidD
QUOTE
So what? I don't like Christian Fundamentalists, or Asparagus, and they both still exist.

This was more like joke...
QUOTE (->
QUOTE
So what? I don't like Christian Fundamentalists, or Asparagus, and they both still exist.

This was more like joke...
Actually, you have yet to produce a shred of evidence to support your ramblings.

Yes, it was random thoughs...
QUOTE
Strong nuclear force holds Nucleons together, Quarks make up a Neutron (U-D-D).

Wrong. Spins holding nuclears toghter, but now I much more concentrated on entanglement explanation (which I already explain).
QUOTE (->
QUOTE
Strong nuclear force holds Nucleons together, Quarks make up a Neutron (U-D-D).

Wrong. Spins holding nuclears toghter, but now I much more concentrated on entanglement explanation (which I already explain).
No, it isn't, this is something we can measure experimentaly.

Also not my serious through...

Still waiting coments on my serious thoughts. cool.gif
DavidD
Okey, here so more realistic thoughts how can work atom and why emision and absorbtion lines are almost quantized. Postulates:
Atom absorbing any frenquency waves, but this waves, which are not seted by borh are absorbed exponentionaly worst depending how much far wave is from quantized line. Or maybe even not exponentionaly but linarly! ohmy.gif
So in atom nucleons holding spins. Okey now this is worst part. Electrons falling into nuclear becouse of charge and then becoming fusion with protons into neutrons, which then decay becouse of spins or whatever... This decayed electrons are emited again and again they falling into nuclear and this is so cycling process. Now, why where is photoeffect and why electrons can be atracted from atom, by photons? Possible explanation, that or photons giving all they energy or photons are traped between electrons atom shell and slowly giving they energy. Since I don't kow how much waves loosing they wavelenght, when they flying through matter, then possible, that some waves giving all they energy to...no, I don't know many nuanses... So why sometimes photons giving all energy to electrons and sometimes only small amount of energy to particles? This is not know and this is quantum mechanic mystery. At all nor my theory about atoms nor over are right and both don't based on any calculations. Borh theory and schrodinger equaiton can't explain why there is absorbed waves also with larger wavelenght, when they loosing they wavelenght. Here is only my small asumption how this all possible to put into harmony: waves giving all they energy to particles, but waves flying like sphere so if there in sphere gap, which was taken by particle, then oer waves filling this gap and loosing they energy (becoming loonger), but then it must be like similar to wavefunction colapse, becouse waves then must feel faster than ligh, but on the over hand no! ohmy.gif In matter waves traveling a little bit slower!!! And this all fits!!! biggrin.gif ph34r.gif And then possible that only very closely waves loosing energy and farther waves no so there is mix of waves, one shorter and over longer.
DavidD
Time to debunk spin ph34r.gif
So okey, what is spin?
Spin acording to current quantum mechanic is particle, which flying in superposition. Where no proves of superposition of spin (like interference). So why just spin of particle is simply a magnet??? But you can say, but for magnet roatation need big amount of energy if say particle was radiated from somehere with random his magnetic properties. But how real much need energy to rotate say heavy proton and very ligh electron? How much less than eccelerate? Well, there we can calculate. But I afraid, that there need integrals, becouse... Or maybe no!
What a heck, I don't have time with stupid games, it's obviously for fool, that don't need many energy to rotate some ball 90 degrees! And smaller angle -the faster rotation, so small particle must align very fast. So this explains quantization of spin. so electron is like small magnet! And since nobody can precisly shoot electron then there is unprecision and nobody know does this unprecision is due to quantized spin or due to inprecision of measurment, hahaha biggrin.gif Also for inprecision there playing some factors like lorence force.. So spin is not quantized.
How to explain atoms quantization in magnetic field, when they flying? Well, each electron in atom aligning to some magnetic field in one or another direction and thus there is prety big number of quantizations. Some atoms don't have possible spin, becouse of some electron configuration, electrons lorence force and so on (how I wonder it's explaining quantum mechanic?).
Even if spin is quantized, why it must mean, that electron flyin in superposition? It's then simply means, that alignation of spin (or like magnet) is rapid and occuring only when is magnetic field. thus then imposible to antialign if electron is already in magnetic field!
So spin superposition don't exist any way and no any colapse.
DavidD
Okey, what is electron difraction (since electron interference wasn't observed)? It is either electron scatering over proton/nuclear or vibraiting particle difraction, for which don't need wave colapse.
http://www.matter.org.uk/diffraction/elect...diffraction.htm

Okey, how now we can explain double slit experiment even without my theory? http://www.teachspin.com/instruments/two_s...periments.shtml
Well, in link says that 0.3% photons are flying instead 100% if photon will be after photon without gaps. So very small distance between photons, huh? So if there is waves instead particles? Well, then waves making photoeffect and making free electrons, which then can be observed. So if in one point there electron was taked by photoeffect, then there is less sensitive (to photoefect) electrons and probability to "colapse" "photon" in this place is smaller and then will be colapse of photon in over place with smaller probability. And becouse waves are flying always according to my theory (but with diferent amplitudes due to interference), then in some "smaller probability places" there already will be induced 'relativistic' electrons, which sooner or later will made photoefect. And thus detection.

THUS MY THeORY SO CLEARLY AND LOGICALY EXPLAINING EVERYTHING WITHOUT FASTER THAN LIGH BULLSHITS!!!

And current official theory don't have any position on how releativistics atoms must acts if into them radiating non-relativistic atoms. For example if you want to do for relativistic atoms photoefect, then obviously electron have bigger mass into relativistic atom than normal and equation h*f=0.5*m*v^2+A seems false. Thus for relativistic atom to freelize electrons need more energy and more photons according to oficial theory. And this is true. Need more waves or with bigger amplitude to give kinetic energy to electron enough that it would become free. Thus waves many times pushing some one of electron untill he becoming freelized. Or maybe not... But in electron must fall many waves to make him free and to give to him some (sometiems small) kinetic energy. So there everything is cleare, more waves, farther electron from nuclear. Also I don't eliminating possiblity, that for over electrons this waves acting opositly by pushing them toward nuclear (this depends on ("freezed") electron possition realative to wave. This electrons which are in not good position flying inside nuclear like part of my crayzy theory, then becoming neutrons and decaying into protons and electrons and in cicle going on the same. Now, why absorbing only some waves atoms, this is hard question and this can be becouse some electron falling into atom better than from over waves adn this fallings radiates and absorbs at same time only certain waves better... Possible that there play inportant role some resonase between electron orbit and nuclear and wavelenght of 'photon"-wave. So there don't nessary made QM based on wavefunction colapse. But enough corregate/imagine some over properties of atom...
DavidD
Here how my theory explains entanglement with interference: http://img380.imageshack.us/img380/6088/en...erferencsx8.png

Explaining image. From center radiated waves (in center black point is source) part of waves going through polarizers and part reflected this reflected waves then going back schower up reflected wavve from right and down refelcted wave from left. How you can see then those waves interferenceing constructivly for one detector and destructivly for over detector. This interference hapening, becouse it is very small probability, that you will put detectors not in shifted possition... And anyway you don't know distance from electrons configuration and so one, which actualy producing waves... So waves packet going with same phase, becouse electrons are like freezed and thus because... So if you a little bit understand entanglement, then you can figure out that it's prety good explains entanglement, but probably with errors of 10-15%, but such errors is in current detections and thus it is not errors!
DavidD
Here about entanglement: http://quantumtantra.com/bell2.html .
What's woring me is just, how waves going back and don't spliting into many paths in crystal if they to detectors from crystal goin through optical fibers. One possible explanation can be, that in fibers waves loosing (absorbed) much more than in crystal spreading biggrin.gif
Of course there possible to insert stupid hidden variables in my theory, which is realtivistic... But I prefer to explain it with interference. Variables is very stupid, huh? So they actualy can act with very big speed then time is "frozen" and thus there no problems, but I realy hate hidden variables and hope, that this my model with interference will not be debunked by theory, becouse by experiment, that it will not be debunked I am sure 100%...
DavidD
Okey, I will try a little bit to explain how entanglement works.
From crystal there is radiated many waves and time is freezed until will be detected one wave-"photon" (possible that on/at distance of 300000 km entanglement don't working, or maybe even at 300 km...).
So supose that there coming waves with polarization of 0 degrees and detectors two seted at polarization of 0 degrees. Then what will be? Both waves will be detected like 1:1. Now if polarizers rotated at 0 degrees and wave at 90 degrees. Then waves will not come and will be reflected from polarizers (of course they will go again to over oposit detector and will go through, because will be reflected with oposit polarization and traveling with imprecision then detection will be 0.9:0.9, which mean 0:0, becouse too small signal) and maybe reflected with same polarization (I don't know this for sure, seems, that with oposit...) and then they never go through and detection will be 0:0.
Now supose if light is polarized at 45 degrees and detectors both on 0 degrees. Then half light will go through in each detector(polarizer) and half will be reflected and now if will be reflected with oposit polarization then always many times will be reflected and untill all light will go through, but actualy will lose many energy and detection will be in ideal case 1:1 and in noisy case 0.5:0.5, which means 0:0 and actual result can be half 0:0 and half 1:1. There result will be the same in this case if both polarizers reflecting waves with oposit polarization and result will more tend to be 0.5:0.5 in ideal case and 0.6:0.6 in noisy case and 0:0 in actual case.
Now supose, that polarizers both rotated at 0 degrees and waves going rotated at 30 degrees. Then probability to pass through both detectors will be (cos30)^2=0.75 and if will be reflected with oposit polarization then amplitude of waves will be sin30 and polarization 90 degrees and thus in ideal case will be detected 0.75:0.75 and in noisy case 0.8:0.8 and in actual case 0:0. Now if polarizers rotated at 0 degrees and ligh 30 degrees and if polarizers reflecting with same polarization (I actualy don't know (precisly) and now must repeats many "experiments" sad.gif ) then goes through 0.75:0.75 and will be reflected ligh with polarization 0 degrees and will be detected in ideal case 1:1 and in noisy case 0.95:0.95 and in actual case 1:1.

So who can answer with what polarization light is reflected from polarizer?
DavidD
Okey here is realy sad thing if it is realy true (you know how hard to trust internet?) sad.gif http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/Hbase...tml?th=30&i=#c3
There says that light is absorbed! Then it killing my theory about interference and polarization reflection... So what? Need explain it then with hidden variables or smallest balls, but at least now there no need faster than ligh comunication (I wonder how sciencist don't come to this theory for so long?? blink.gif ) dry.gif

P.S. Some polarizers there read, that absorbing light even if two polarizers are at same angle! Like ligh go through first polarizer and become polarized and after second polarizer don't must to be absorbed, but is absorbed by enough big precents. But seems, that theory says, that polarized light still must be even stronger absorbed if two polarizers are ortogonal. Maybe some reflection combined with interference still can give usefull pluses to my theory? rolleyes.gif

Here good video on polarized TV/display experiments http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Sdv0J57_U5g

Here is another good video, which maybe proves that half light is reflected... http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=bMxwyrYeB40&feature=related

Here polarizer which don't absorbing light if it is in same polarization and how about reflection it's is on another side http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=imQnWrLW2i0&feature=related

Here possible evidence, that light is reflected from polarizer http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=6lVIo9C0NDA&feature=related

Here is direct evidence, that light is reflected from polarizer (except if this guy having some dark glass instead polarizer), watch reflected lazer http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=qaeYYbLrPWY&feature=related This guy probably want to say, that lazer must be coherent, but it he or wrongly understand or laser is not coherent, but due to small hole... laugh.gif

Here polarized crystals http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=QgA6L2n476Y&feature=related
DavidD
Here direct no doubted evidence, that polarizer reflecting waves (interesting only with what polarization?) http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=fU7z1g-eXzw !!!
DavidD
A little bit boring stuff.
What is biggest mistake in unpossibility to explain entanglement? Sciencists assuming, that we and our universe moving with some 0.3c-0.7c or somthing, but not of 0.99999c. Nobody can know with what speed moving ouor universe. With this asumption that earth moving with 0.99999c speed relative to sotmhing, possible I think even explain entanglement with current theory with all this colapses and over nonsenses, without faster than light comunication. Mabe not very easy, but possible...
About universe expansion. Universe don't expanding faster than light and probably never expand in past of many bilions years ago. So what is red shift? Well, just somthing moving verys fast realativily to us and redshift can be infinity big. For example if object moving with speed 0.9999999999999999c, then gamma rays will have redshift and will be infrared waves. So there no any evidence, that universe expanding faster than light. And also like writen in my textbook into matter waves loosing energy and are (red)shifted (they loosing energy in matter, which is small number of atoms in cosmos and this atoms making gaps in waves spheres and this waves are little bit loosing they speed and energy...). Thus no any faster than light expansion!!!
Even if electron difraction need to explain only ligh electron being "large" wave and then colapsing to small point, then even this possible to explain with my relativistic theory, becouse colapsing hapening with speed of light untill everything is "freezen" and of course some very small part of energy should to late, but this will be compensated of electron 'waveistic' moment, instead 'massistic' moment... It's like no matter how far electron will fly, most energy will be able return almost without delay if we flying at speed 0.9999999999999999999999999999999999999c. Some energy energy maybe can be compensaited by photons for a wail. But how I say, there wasn't proved electron like wave colapse! And how we know? Maybe realy there is some small delay of electron colapse if it is wave? Then this is briliant and even don't need any changings in current theory (suming we flying with speed 0.999999999c).
So I explain all quantum mechanic mysteries with relativity even don't changing it!
About atom. Possible that in atom (if my atom model wrong) electron becoming wave and traveling from one orbit to over with speed of light and radiating quantized photons and no need nothing change in current theory. Briliant, my theory is just briliant and don't requiring to change somthing in current physic, but just to assume, that we moving with speed ver very close to c (say 0.9999999*c).
But I still want to explain entanglement with polarization, interference theory and to get my nobel prize ohmy.gif
DavidD
Okey you coders encoders, here free pascal program for calculating in mentioned link about entanglement result...
QUOTE

program average;
  var a, b, d,e: real;
  var c:integer;
begin
    e:=0; c:=0;
//for c:=0 to 360 do begin
while c<360 do begin
d:=c-30;
b:=c/57.2957795130823208232087679;
d:=d/57.2957795130823208232087679;d:=cos(d)*cos(d);
a:=cos(b)*cos(b);
a:=a*d+(1-a)*(1-d);
e:=e+a;
// writeln('x',c,' ',a:0:9);
c:=c+1;
  end;
        e:=e/360;
   writeln('result: ',e:0:20);
  readln();
end.


How this works? Supose that photon coming with polarization from 0 to 359 degrees and then one polarizer is rotated at 0 degrees and over at 30 degrees, then according to experiments result must be 0.75 match probability, that either both photons will be detected or both photons will not be detected. Acording to polarization calculations without entanglement probability to match, when one polarizer is rotated at 0 degress and over at 30 degress is 0.625 (so need hiden variables, huh?). For example if one polarizer is rotated 0 degrees and over at 15 degrees then classical theory of probabilities predicting 0.7165 probability of match and experiments says, that probability of matching is (cos15)^2=0.933.
How I was calculating probabilities without entanglement?
Well, probability of each photon to pass through 0 degrees polarizer is (cosx)^2, where x is photon polarization in degrees. Probability to pass through polarizer, which is rotated 30 degrees for any photon is (cos(x-30))^2 (becouse two photons going with same polarization). So total probability to pass two photons at same time is (cosx)^2 * (cos(x-30))^2 . And total probability to don't pass for both photons at same time is [1-(cosx)^2]*[1-(cos(x-30))^2]. And probability, that result will match (two photons will pass or two photons will not pass) is
(cosx)^2 * (cos(x-30))^2 +[1-(cosx)^2]*[1-(cos(x-30))^2], so this gives answer 0.625. So how you see answer 0.625 is prety close to 0.75, because 0.75-0.625=0.125 and 0.933-0.7165=0.2165. So what can be or what can replace this 0.125 or 0.2165? Well, interference or/and polarization of reflected from polarizer waves interference or just reflected amplitude... But this seems very dificult, because I don't know how polarizer reflectes light and does ti at all reflects and if reflects with what polarization ortogonal or at all reflects with polarization?
So If I would have more data on this I would be able to made more concrete results instead random experiments... According to some links classical theory says, that polarizer light is not reflected, but absorbed, then seems there no chance for my theory, huh? But light can be maybe reflected like artifact (error) and lead to some interference and thus to such results.
DavidD
Okey, so how fastly need to calculate cousal probability (by probabilistic consequence without entanglement...)? Here is very fast and easy formula

[(cos120)^2 * (cos(120-30))^2 +[1-(cos120)^2]*[1-(cos(120-30))^2] + (cos240)^2 * (cos(240-30))^2 +[1-(cos240)^2]*[1-(cos(240-30))^2] + (cos240)^2 * (cos(240-30))^2 +[1-(cos240)^2]*[1-(cos(240-30))^2]]/3= 0.625 .
Instead y=30 degrees you can put any number of degrees and will get compared answer with theoretical (cosy)^2=(cos30)^2=0.75.

Or in pascal program you can change 30 number by any number from 0 to 360. Also you can change step long like photon polarization is 1, 2, 3... or 5, 10, 15... or 30, 60, 90... or 120, 240, 360, but at least 3 steps must, be becouse if you will take 180, 360 then result will be wrong. Of course need know and work only with this 3 parameters:
d:=c-30;
c:=c+1;
e:=e/360; (= 0.625)
or
d:=c-15;
c:=c+120;
e:=e/3; (= 0.7165)

by changing integers, if you don't stupid you will understood...
DavidD
[(cos120)^2 * (cos(120-30))^2 +[1-(cos120)^2]*[1-(cos(120-30))^2] +
(cos240)^2 * (cos(240-30))^2 +[1-(cos240)^2]*[1-(cos(240-30))^2] +
(cos360)^2 * (cos(360-30))^2 +[1-(cos360)^2]*[1-(cos(360-30))^2]]/3=
(0.25*0+0.75*1+
0.25*0.75+0.75*0.25+
1*0.75+0*0.25)/3=
(0.75+
0.375+
0.75)/3 = 0.625 .

BTW, the biggest separation between quantum and probabilistic result is when two polarizers rotated at same angle, then for probabilistic result is 0.75 and for quantum (cos0)^2=1, thus 1-0.75=0.25, thus need from somwhere to take this 0.25 like local hidden variables or some interference like in my theory...
DavidD
So, let's calculate this 0.75 probability:
[(cos120)^2 * (cos(120-0))^2 +[1-(cos120)^2]*[1-(cos(120-0))^2] +
(cos240)^2 * (cos(240-0))^2 +[1-(cos240)^2]*[1-(cos(240-0))^2] +
(cos360)^2 * (cos(360-0))^2 +[1-(cos360)^2]*[1-(cos(360-0))^2]]/3=
(0.25*0.25+0.75*0.75+
0.25*0.25+0.75*0.75+
1*1+0*0)/3=
(0.0625+0.5625+
0.0625+0.5625+
1+0)/3 =
(0.625+
0.625+
1)/3 =0.75 .

So here seems, that if assume there is some law, like if there waves equaly taking photons at same time then they will do it until free electron again will become source of photoefect... So here is possible to explain with my wave theory without any over frogshits.

edit: Here recently I understand very important question: how sciencists know, that if two photons wasn't detected in both detectors, that it is not errors or somthing, but just probabilistic entanglement verification???
excaza
Explain the pioneer anomaly using your model.
DavidD
QUOTE (excaza+Jul 9 2008, 04:07 PM)
Explain the pioneer anomaly using your model.

I already explain it. Photons have pressure and they doing all this stuff!
excaza
QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 9 2008, 11:15 AM)
I already explain it. Photons have pressure and they doing all this stuff!

Pressure exerted by electromagnetic radiation was discovered in the early 1900s. NASA is well aware of the force and includes it in their calculations, as do the physicists working on explaining the anomaly.

Strike one.

And given that the pioneer probes are slowing down more than expected due to an unexplained force acting towards the sun, and force from electromagnetic radiation from the sun (extraordinarily small that far from the Sun) and the craft's radio emissions would be acting you know, away from the Sun, your idea doesn't explain it at all.

Strike Two.


Do you even know what the pioneer anomaly is?
DavidD
Look at this image and lough from rising stupidity of entanglement treaters: http://www.quantop.nbi.dk/pics/cell_exp/il...graphs_35cm.jpg
There says, that they reducing somthing bullshiting they noise by 25%, ha, but this exactly is they biggest possible result, which can be goten without entanglement... laugh.gif
And also like in link in entanglement is 1+1=3 and in classical 1+1=2, wrong! In entanglement 1+1+1=4 (1) and in probabilistic model 1+1+1=3 (0.75). And if compare 1+1=3 (0.75) and in without entanglement 1+1=2.5 (0.625). So not 2, but 2.5 instead 3. Maybe this 3-2.5=0.5 is errors, huh? laugh.gif Maybe they stupidrons thinking, that photon is not in one polarization but in all polarizations at same time, hu? HAHAHAHA laugh.gif Such loosers I don't sow ever!!! Now searching entanglement with smallest errors wink.gif experiments.


See on page 16:
"We have roughly k_exp^2 = 0.10 · x[deg] which should be compared to the prediction (38) k_theory^2 = 0.24 · x[deg]. The discrepancy is a little more than a
factor of two but this is acceptable for our quite simple modeling."
Loosers! What they think with such missagreement with theory? Then my calculations with certain polarization of each photon at each time already explains all this faking results."

And more:
"Let us try to apply the simple decoherence model given by Eqs. (35) and (36).
Taking the decoherence parameter beta = 0.65 we get the dashed lines in the figure.
These match nicely the experimental data. We conclude that the simple
decoherence model has some truth in it and we must accept that the entangled
state created can only be verified to be around “65% as good” as expected in
an ideal world."
Is 65% good? GOOD??? 1*0.65=0.65, while with my model there is 0.75. This is good? laugh.gif

Edit: There probably with atoms entanglement so this bullshit can't be counted like evidence of entanglement between atoms nor like debunktion of entanglement between photons:
"To conclude the experimental section we emphasize that we have generated
entangled states between distant atomic samples in the sense that each vapour
cell sits in its own magnetic shield. The two shields can in principle be moved
as far apart as is practical, our experiment was performed with a distance of
35cm. In the future we hope to extend this distance further. The noise reduction
below the level set by separable states was measured up to 25%. This
number is mainly limited by power broadening and light assisted collisional
relaxation of the atomic spins."
DavidD
QUOTE (excaza+Jul 9 2008, 04:17 PM)
Pressure exerted by electromagnetic radiation was discovered in the early 1900s. NASA is well aware of the force and includes it in their calculations, as do the physicists working on explaining the anomaly.

Strike one.

And given that the pioneer probes are slowing down more than expected due to an unexplained force acting towards the sun, and force from electromagnetic radiation from the sun (extraordinarily small that far from the Sun) and the craft's radio emissions would be acting you know, away from the Sun, your idea doesn't explain it at all.

Strike Two.


Do you even know what the pioneer anomaly is?

Pioner anomaly can be anomaly of that we don't know precise earth mass and properties and gravity and egges form from spining and so on also don't know precise mass of sun, relativistic mass smaller of object, which don't fly with earth... Sun is hot non ball form littel longer and so on, questions more than answers tongue.gif
excaza
QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 9 2008, 11:56 AM)
Pioner anomaly can be anomaly of that we don't know precise earth mass and properties and gravity and egges form from spining and so on also don't know precise mass of sun, relativistic mass smaller of object, which don't fly with earth... Sun is hot non ball form littel longer and so on, questions more than answers tongue.gif

Strike three.
DavidD
Here is good paper if it is not wrong (claiming somthing new, which wasnot discovered, but he will discover dry.gif ): http://arxiv.org/pdf/quant-ph/0405155v1.pdf .
This paper completly then debunking my this theory about probabilities without any ove rtricks.
But with reflected waves all seems prety possible if assuming, that experiment results is twice smaller (average not 12.5% or 0-25%, but average 6.25 or 0-12.5% of second "B" photons). so now this direction of my theory with reflected polarized light seems, most advanced and perspective and best, becouse interference there seems, don't have any impact. So reflected polarization, hmm... Interesting, isn't? cool.gif
DavidD
Here program for probability of matching, then in gradians (400~360) there is all rotations and then probability to passing through 30 degrees rotations through polarized glass is not (cos30)^2=0.75, but 1-0.3(3)=0.666(6). So here is program http://www.codecutter.net/tools/quincy/200...05v1_3setup.exe , which to run need press "F9":
QUOTE
#include <stdio.h>
#include <stdlib.h>
//#include <string>
//using namespace std;
int c=0;
double a=0,e=0;
double fun(double a)
{
//a=abs(a);
if(a<=1&&a>=0)a=1-a;
if(a<=2&&a>1)a=a-1;
if(a<=3&&a>2)a=3-a;
if(a<4&&a>3)a=a-3;
return a;
}
int main(void)
{
//string s;
char ch[500],ch2[500],ch3[500];
for (double i=0;i<4;i=i+0.01){
a=fun(i-0.166666666);
a=a*fun(i)+(1-fun(i))*(1-a);
e=e+a;

sprintf(ch, "%f",a);



sprintf(ch2, "%d",c);
  printf("x");
printf(ch2);printf(" ");
printf(ch);
printf("\n");
  c=c+1;

}
e=e/400;
sprintf(ch3, "%f",e);
printf(ch3);
return 0;
}

this is nothing to do with quantum mechanic, but just exotic comparition how/what would be probability of match if will be the liner dependence...
So if angle is 30 degrees or 33.(3) gradians, then probability of match is 0.524967. If one polarizer rotated at 0 degrees and over at 15 degrees (16.(6) gradians), then match probability of both detectors is 608366. If Both polarizers rotated at 0 degrees (gradians) then match probability is 0.66920 .
DavidD
Damn, why they posting papers, before making experiment ? mad.gif dry.gif
"At this stage, when the experiments
have not been carried out, we would consider
that there exists the continuity of quantum
entanglement."
http://arxiv.org/pdf/quant-ph/0405155v1.pdf
Probably such experiment too nosiy laugh.gif
So then my interference model also can be used here not only polarization model, which would be half as bad...
excaza
QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 10 2008, 07:06 AM)
Damn, why they posting papers, before making experiment ? mad.gif  dry.gif

Damn, why they posting theories and claiming to explain everything in the universe, before making experiment ? mad.gif dry.gif

Whoops, wait, that's you rolleyes.gif
DavidD
I now starting to think that Bell was stupidron and his Bell inequalities is bullshit, becouse here found nice(? http://www.drchinese.com/David/Bell_Theorem_Easy_Math.htm ) explanation, that at 120 degrees probability of matching should be 0.25 laugh.gif mad.gif In my theory it is also 0.25!!! And not some stupid 0.33(3) like bell think must be with hidden variables mad.gif
Here how must look formula at 120 degrees:
[(cos120)^2 * (cos(120-120))^2 +[1-(cos120)^2]*[1-(cos(120-120))^2] +
(cos240)^2 * (cos(240-120))^2 +[1-(cos240)^2]*[1-(cos(240-120))^2] +
(cos360)^2 * (cos(360-120))^2 +[1-(cos360)^2]*[1-(cos(360-120))^2]]/3=
(0.25*1+0.75*0+
0.25*0.25+0.75*0.75+
1*0.25+0*0.75)/3=
(0.25+0+
0.0625+0.5625+
0.25+0)/3 =
(0.25+
0.625+
0.25)/3
=1.125/3=0.375 .
unsure.gif
I wrong... quantum entanglement predicts 0.25 and my theory 0.375 and guy in link says, that it at most can be 0.3(3) or on average [0.(3)*6+2*1]/8=0.5. Well, even without "hidden variables tricks" cousal theory predicts 0.375 rather than 0.5, but still worst than 1/3. So there no mistakes and also in my theory, bcosue probability to pass through polarizer is (cosx)^2 for random polarized photon. http://www.cityreformed.org/snoke/hsbook/selection9.pdf

So maybe there is some measurment errors, huh? Maybe sciencists grasp simpler law (cosy)^2 to match instead my more dificult law
[(cos120)^2 * (cos(120-y))^2 +[1-(cos120)^2]*[1-(cos(120-y))^2] +
(cos240)^2 * (cos(240-y))^2 +[1-(cos240)^2]*[1-(cos(240-y))^2] +
(cos360)^2 * (cos(360-y))^2 +[1-(cos360)^2]*[1-(cos(360-y))^2]]/3
?
Then this explains why experiments don't match with "theory" and then don't need anymore play stupid games, but only to use my this calculation rolleyes.gif
DavidD
Imprtant knowledes for rather analize of my theory by interference to explain entanglement...
http://www.davidjarvis.ca/entanglement/spookiness.shtml
"For example, we can polarize the light before it goes through the slits. Like rippling a rope through a picket fence to permit only vertical waves (see Figure 4.4), polarizing allows us to limit the type of light waves that make it through the slits to the detector.

When we put a polarizing filter around one of the two slits, the interference pattern disappears. The result is shown in Figure 6.3."
Too bad there is puted polarizer even before 2 slits. On the over hand photon flying already polarized, but there nothing says about angles (how possible to be so stupid by writing this?). But I think actualy this first polarizers don't have any impact before slits. So then waves through second slit changing they polarization (when time is frezed) and waves through uper slit are polarized after that, thus then ligh becoming not coherent and no interference! So then it's means, that interference can't play any role for explaining entanglement! How I don't think about this before? Polarizers only changing polarization of waves, which long time going through polarizer-matter and when time is not freezed, but if time is freezed then for a wail all waves are polarized at some same angle (this makes electrsons and atoms..). But on the over hand, maybe realy waves are polarized and splited into many smaller amplitude waves with more polarizations? But then this is very bad news for my theory, unless in bell experiment there is some prepolarizer... Anyway, very important fact I already understood, that waves with diferent polarization can't interference. And also probably very improtant point and bad new for me is that waves traveling through crystal are in diferent outcomes eadges diferently polarized, unlees traveling one waves, which is then splited with beam spliters, but no, beam spilters also polarizing in diferent way, becouse one going through beam spliter and over no. So seems, that my formula can be wrong:
[(cos120)^2 * (cos(120-y))^2 +[1-(cos120)^2]*[1-(cos(120-y))^2] +
(cos240)^2 * (cos(240-y))^2 +[1-(cos240)^2]*[1-(cos(240-y))^2] +
(cos360)^2 * (cos(360-y))^2 +[1-(cos360)^2]*[1-(cos(360-y))^2]]/3 !
Or maybe no, becouse there still traveling many wave or more times...
But wrong is interference, becouse it can't interfere with polarized waves if it is reflected similarly like from mirror and not with some polarization like polarizer or oposit... And traveling through crystal reflected waves also must change polarization. Unless all waves are without polarization. Yes! without polarization. But interference still need eliminate from my theory. So now possible only guess with what polarization light is reflected from polarizer or maybe even without polarization? So there is 3 or no - 4 variants (also then light is not reflected at all, but absorbed). 1) variant: light is reflected with oposit polarization; 2) variant: light is relfected with same polarization; 3) varinat: light is reflected from polarizer without polarization (like was before); 4) variant: light is absorbed. Oficial theory seems tend to prefer "4)" variant.

Edit: wait, why interference must be removed if polarizations much? blink.gif So interference can't be removed if there flyign wave with all possible polarizations from crystal.

edit2: I am wrong, if in crystal waves are polarized with many diferent polarizations then all is wrong and probability of match will be very small. But there is good new, that possible that waves are created only in one electron and thus then they have the same polarization, but this seems like not very possible sad.gif
But on the over hand maybe entangled pair producing lazer and then wave is in one point and then this is ver very possible! ohmy.gif So if you will try to create entangled pair not from lazer then nothing to be according to this theory (that's why they so loves photons?)!
DavidD
Found very profound experiment:
"Quantum Eraser

Figure 6.5 shows a Bell-state quantum eraser, named after John Bell. It illustrates the application of the following steps:
a laser fires photons into a Beta Barium Borate (BBO) crystal;
the crystal entangles some of the photons; and then
entangled photons travel to two different detectors: A and B.

Placed between the crystal and detector B is a double-slit, like in the previous experiments. Immediately in front of detector A is a polarizing filter that can be rotated. Figure 4.5 showed an experiment using sunglasses to see the effects of rotating a polarizer. Those same effects apply here.


Figure 6.5. Experiment 4 - Bell-state Quantum Eraser.

The Bell-state quantum eraser has one more feature: each slit is covered by a substance that filters the polarization of a photon. Consequently, the left-hand slit will receive photons with a counter-clockwise polarization, and the right-hand slit will pass photons with a clockwise polarization.

Note: Polarization does not affect interference patterns.

Initially, neither detector shows an interference pattern. Since we control the polarization of photons passing through the slits and we know the polarization accepted by each slit, we can deduce which way the photons travelled (counter-clockwise through the left; clockwise through the right). Thus no interference patterns are detected.

However, if we rotate the polarizing filter in front of detector A so that the polarizations of the photons that hit the detector are the same (that is, we can no longer distinguish between clockwise and counter-clockwise polarizations), then the interference pattern appears at both detectors!

How do the photons arriving at detector B know that the polarizations have been "erased" at detector A?"
http://www.davidjarvis.ca/entanglement/spookiness.shtml
In this experiment waves from crystal going to two point: in point A and in point B. Point A have polarizer before detector rotated at 0 degrees and point B have double slits before detector and between double slit and detectors in point B there is polarizers rotated at 0 degrees, which are after slits. So when polarizations match then interference of aves is possible and this seen in detecor A! How this can be? Let's think. Waves are reflected from polarizer(s) in B point and going back through crystal and are reflected from crystal and passing through polarizer A (becouse have same polarization) and then making interferece. Somebody may say, that this is prety unrealistic with this "back reflection" and he will be probably right. Maybe I should give up? But maybe if you will change distance between detector A and crystal and detector B then maybe fringers becoming longer or shorter and gaps between them? And also maybe those detectors in experiments are so close, that interference reflected patter reaching with the same distance and with any over bigger or smaller distance is imposible to do such experiment due to noise? ohmy.gif This prety good explains all this stuff and then light in detecor A even rising amplitude for better detection, HA! ph34r.gif cool.gif
Or even better explantion. Since waves can't be reflected from polarizer, then they going through polarizer and are reflected from detector and detecor even also radiating small amount of light waves and light going from detector B through slits and then is reflected from crystal and with weak(?) amplitude going to detector A and making interference pattern. And don't need even my theory. And then some sciencists saying, that there is "small" errors sad.gif , but in real big errors is in his head laugh.gif
Beer w/Straw
QUOTE (Evil Rupert+Jul 5 2008, 04:03 PM)
mad.gif If you fucklng dare post again, I'll kill you, your relatives and shlt in you cats mouth. mad.gif

Rupert the Bear?


huh.gif
DavidD
Ok, what is most important reason in my theory, that entanglement can't be just somthing not related with waves like reflection from polarizer/detector and they interference or simply assuming, that photon is polarized when produced? Well, The biggest gap is that according to current oficial theory waves must colapse in many many points, when some one imbecile in small point is measured! So my theory states that there no wavecolpase and only waves and thus then entanglement mean, that all waves must colapse - "sppoky acts on distance", so imagine in this way, that there expanding spherical wave when time going on, and in one small point this wave(s) is measured and in over small point there also colapse everything or all wave colapse, all sphere dry.gif Isn't it ridiculouse? When photon cahnging polarization then he giving his impulse to matter (like light pressure) and if you waant to change all wave polarization then need very match energy, becouse mostly this wave consist of many coherent waves (like lazer). OF course some cranck may state, that this is it, colapsing all wave and this is wavefunction colapse, but for this need energy dry.gif But cranck will say, that energy don't need many, bacause we flying on relativistic speed. And cranck will add, that this polarization (energy) making photoeffect. And this is principle of colapse. But why just simply assume, that there no colapse and no entanglement and waves have only some bigger or smaller amplitude, which can or cannot be detected? My theory, prety simple explains entanglement, with only one simple assumtion, that photon-wave polarization making not some mystery or maxwel equation or over math, but simply making electrons and atoms configuration, in which was shooted wave and produce "entangled" waves. Since lazer is only about few nm radius ray, then waves producing they polarizatino on net electrons efect (because electrons don't flying faster than waves). Thus waves after short lazer shoot/impule is polarized (which sciecists call photons). Sciencists think, that this waves is not polarized and then they need hidden variables, but if they are polarized always at random angle (because electrons and atoms configuration always is random) then possible explain entanglement only with this fact, that 'photons' in both directions flying with same polarization and thus acting somthing like similarly and this acting like shown in my formulas have properties which is better than hidden variables and then experimental results can be explained with my theory and current theory about "noise" is inconsistent. So I am sure, that nature don't playing stupid games like wavefunction colapse and entanglement, because smallest spheres is for waves and not for playing magic ph34r.gif
This is explains, why there no diference in experiments on big distance and small, because waves are almost equaly absorbed unlike photons...
If particles have somthing like wave nature, then this nature within going with speed of light and not bigger. For example assume, that there is electron, at big speed there he is like wave and in both side there is like two tenisists which playing with ball, which flying with speed c and then don't matter how big wave-lectron is then he can't colapse faster than light, but in relativistic speed can colapse almost instantly. But anyway, there no any proves, that electron is wave, except his size vibrating like wave, like bag vibrating, but he is not a wave,w hich colapsing. So electron is more like human-wave, than like water-wave...
DavidD
Bell eraser http://grad.physics.sunysb.edu/~amarch/Walborn.pdf is chalanging question for my theory, but in papers, which I have seen, no any words about accuracy of experiment, so simply maybe light in double slit is reflected from detector ang oing back and making all this stuff very weakly or maybe even light is relfected from polarizer with polarization of slit like polarizer... There many possiblities with interference and so on, but al least there no theoretical limit to don't possiblity of this my asumptions to explain this Bell eraser with simple waves tricks, like reflection/polariztion/interference.

edit: here somthing rambling about mixed state in eraser, not entangled, maybe there entanglement no at all, but eraser is just theoretical junk?:
"IV. CONCLUSIONS
We have demonstrated the operation of a quantum eraser
using a polarization interferometer. Interference is made to
appear and or disappear by modification of the measurement
apparatus rather than a modification of the interferometer,
indicating that this is an ideal quantum eraser.
The presence or absence of an interference pattern is independent
of whether we use an entangled state or a mixed
state source. However, in the presence of a beam block in
one of the interferometer arms, the measured coincidence
count rates do depend on whether the source state is entangled
or mixed. In this sense we say that the mixed state
can mimic most, but not all, of the entangled state behavior."

Here just about eraser: http://www.mat.ufmg.br/~tcunha/2003-07WalbornF.pdf
magpies
A science no one understands is as good as a science nobody believes in... The point of science is to find answers to questions and explain thouse answers in as simple a term as possible. Science has become a cult religion in that respect it find answers to questions that almost nobody can understand... If scientists want to be believed by the general population right or wrong they need to have a simple model of how there things work other wise they just waisted time doing proffs for just themself and there selfishness.

I dont care if quantum mechanics is real or not IF I cant ever understand it.
So if you want me to care about quantum mechanics and get me to donate dollars to your research then you better get me to care lol. There should be a rule no idiots allowed here. And anyone who thinks there an idiot to the point of not joining would just walk away lol problem fixed no more true idiots anywhere but nowhere!
excaza
Are you serious? You don't take the time to understand something so you're just going to say fu*k it? Such a positive and upward view of things. Instead of sitting there bitching you could be doing some armchair research and learning the basic concepts behind quantum mechanics. I hope you don't have children to pass that line of thinking along to, that would be depressing. Telling them from a young age that if they don't understand something they shouldn't care. Know that computer you're using? All those cool pictures from outer space? Those airplanes that fly around? I bet you don't know how THOSE work either, but you're not bitching about that. You're just caught up in the myth that theoretical physicists are just sitting around throwing darts at a board filled with jargon and using it to come up with theories. They're not. They're starting with fundamental equations and experimental data, and working out mathematical models that accurately reflect the data and predict future experimental results.

Quantum mechanics has been the simplest model for nearly a hundred years, just because you don't feel like taking the time to understand it doesn't mean it should be dismissed. To do so is a tie between supreme retardation and total ignorance, I can't decide.
DavidD
QUOTE (magpies+Jul 11 2008, 09:59 PM)
A science no one understands is as good as a science nobody believes in... The point of science is to find answers to questions and explain thouse answers in as simple a term as possible. Science has become a cult religion in that respect it find answers to questions that almost nobody can understand... If scientists want to be believed by the general population right or wrong they need to have a simple model of how there things work other wise they just waisted time doing proffs for just themself and there selfishness.

I dont care if quantum mechanics is real or not IF I cant ever understand it.
So if you want me to care about quantum mechanics and get me to donate dollars to your research then you better get me to care lol. There should be a rule no idiots allowed here. And anyone who thinks there an idiot to the point of not joining would just walk away lol problem fixed no more true idiots anywhere but nowhere!

There should care actualy science comunity, because my theory is logical and simple unlike bullshit of current quantum theory. So if my theory is true and seems, that it is, then sciencists just waisting time on quantum computer and more they should care about entanglement to debunk my theory. But if they can't debunk my theory about entanglement (that it don't exist...) 80 years, then why at all need to try it debunk? It's like searching cranks/quarks, but if after few decades you can't find them, then they just don't exist...
Currnet official model is not simple and my model is match simpler and don't have any mysteries, except maybe, that our universe flying at some 0.999999999c speed...
DavidD
QUOTE (excaza+Jul 11 2008, 10:52 PM)
Are you serious? You don't take the time to understand something so you're just going to say fu*k it? Such a positive and upward view of things. Instead of sitting there bitching you could be doing some armchair research and learning the basic concepts behind quantum mechanics. I hope you don't have children to pass that line of thinking along to, that would be depressing. Telling them from a young age that if they don't understand something they shouldn't care. Know that computer you're using? All those cool pictures from outer space? Those airplanes that fly around? I bet you don't know how THOSE work either, but you're not bitching about that. You're just caught up in the myth that theoretical physicists are just sitting around throwing darts at a board filled with jargon and using it to come up with theories. They're not. They're starting with fundamental equations and experimental data, and working out mathematical models that accurately reflect the data and predict future experimental results.

Quantum mechanics has been the simplest model for nearly a hundred years, just because you don't feel like taking the time to understand it doesn't mean it should be dismissed. To do so is a tie between supreme retardation and total ignorance, I can't decide.

For such idiot like you I have special one version of theory... How working entanglement and Bell eraser? Well, we flying with speed 0.9999999999c, then waves going to two slits, then interferencing, then this they data propogating through waves in oposit direction chaning it polarization, then those waves until time is freezed meating waves witch produced wrom crystal and then changing them polarization and all going with same polarization and interference. but you see, there also somthing wrong, interference, not very msut occure or maybe to cahnge only some waves accoridng to waves which bounce into detector? Okey, with relativity it's of course possible to solve entanglement, but this is not very unlikely. Relativity is actualy more about wavecolapse and not about entanglement. About entanglement I have separate theory, which says, that entanglement don't exist at all.

So, what is the most likely model of quantum mechanic according to me, now?
About entanglement: entanglement don't exist like I saying in thread about entanglement, that it is new law of waves polarization within crystal, when they are produced. Bell eraser is reflection from detector and detector radiation of weak waves. Wavefunction colapse don't exist and it is detector possiblity to registre some waves, if it can registrate such amplitude then it is "photon" if can't then it is not "phopton colapse". All atoms radiating electromagnetic waves with same speed not depending with how colse to c speed they moving. But for bigger c speed objects need more waves and bigger amplitude to registrate them and detect and so on.
Delia
QUOTE (excaza+Jul 11 2008, 10:52 PM)
is a tie between supreme retardation and total ignorance, I can't decide.

Supreme retardation is much more pronounced with DavidDestroyedbrain.
Delia
.... probably pronounced "soopreem reetardasion" laugh.gif
DavidD
I don't know hot it can be so hard to understand, that wave or say "photon" have not the polarization of all angles at same time and thus two (entangled) photons have the 50% probability to go or not to go through polarizers adn thus mathc probability should be 50% average, but in my theory entangled photons have only one some certain polarization and both the same and thus average probability to match is not 0.5, but 0.6591549423395163 and according to current (oficial) theory match average proabbility is 0.818309759891477 from 0 to 45 degrees. hidden variables probably have average match probability some ~0.6 and thus my theory have bigger match probability than hidden variables and it so nicely matching with experiments unsure.gif
DavidD
I think, that Bell quantum eraser can be at all only theoretical thing and nobody actualy make such experiemtn in working sense and here one more link http://grad.physics.sunysb.edu/~amarch/ .
But Some explanations in over case I can give. When there no polarizer for detecotr A (without two slits), then photons have bigger amplitude and double slit reflected fringers are overheaded by this stronger amplitude and when polarizer puted onto Detector A then from detector B reflected light going through double slits and creating interference patter in detector A, because now is twice weaker amplitude of photons, which going to detector A, but amplitude from Detector B radited photons interference is the same and thus then more chance to see interference pattern on detctor A and also this amplitude for detector A photons is important, because it increasing amplitude of reflected "fingers". But I need to see real experiment paper instead some pseudotheory...
But like I say, there no any theoretical limits for explaining Bell eraser and also maybe it even possible to show, that this my theory is right by don't spliting light and don't sending it to Detector A, but only do it when it reflected and send it not in circular phorm, but in linear... Everything is very simple, there even don't need to reflect from BBO crystal, becasue there seems, that there is beam spliter, which will do his work and then 25% interference in detector A theoreticaly no problem to see.
At all this entanglement is so ridiculouse, because in all experimetns it actualy created through beam spliter and then it efiecency should be 25%, because two photons can fly in 4 diferent way, but it is obviouse that there no any photons, but only waves. My theory is 100% right!
DavidD
Some crayzy idea for atom model. Electromagnetic waves is exactly the same as waves on water, but only expanding like sphere, but have ampliture and so on. Water waves speed alsmost linarly and x times depending on wavelenght. WAve with 10 times bigger amplitude is 10 times longer and 10 times faster. So at all 10+10-10=10 times have more energy. So it's fit's with law h*f, but f there can be actualy speed of wave and amplitude, rather than frenquency. If two waves summed up then they speed increase and energy and wavelenght. Why shorter waves better difract possible explanation can be that they have bigger aplitude and inertion and energy and speed. This all combaining with relativistic my theory it's all still remains possible rolleyes.gif According to this theory bigger amplitude electromagnetic waves should difract diferently, but you see, that then amplitude is bigger, speed also and thus inertion also and somthing going on like wave is longer, but inertion bigger and this two things compensating each over and it's giving result, that all waves behave like they have the same wavelenght! For examing in same way atoms, need use relativistic theory... But there will be the same, but mabe later...
DavidD
Okay, continuing idea about sea waves, I there have absolutly revolution theory about waves and atoms! ohmy.gif
All waves are exactly like sea waves. Bigger amplitude waves have bigger speed proportional to amplitude like in sea waves. All waves have the same frenquency, but bigger waves are longer, but going faster and thus frenquency is the same of all waves, but longer going faster and have bigger amplitude, than shorter waves. Two times longer wave going faster 2 times and have 2 times bigger amplitude. Shorter amplitude waves better difracting, but faster and bigger amplitude wavse better difracting, because of bigger amplitude and speed and thus 2+2-2=2 times better difracting those waves, which have bigger amplitude and longer and faster!
Okay, so all waves have the same frenquency, but diferent speed and amplitude... So how we see colourse if all waves have the same frenquency? Well, this is most interesting part. If say there is red rose then our brains comparing does there is bigger amplitude waves detected in nearest eyes detection point, then if there no bigger amplitude, then there means, tath coloure is red. IF there is another bigger amplitude (smaller and little bigger), then it's means, that coloure is green and red and our eyes detecting both colourse if there is another bigger amplitude waves in nearest point (like RGB) then there we see white coloure of blue green and red.
If there is only biggest amplitude waves then we see blue. Particularly this explain why hoter stars radiating more blue waves, because there added many small ampltudes and becoming more high amplitude waves - blue... I am not now only sure how added big waves with big frenquency waves, probably if frenquency is close to each voer then they can constructivly creat bigger wave and if frenquencies are prety far from each over then they flying like two frenquency waves. (damn, I there was talking about amplitudes and not frenquencies, becasue frenquencies are the same) Ah, how to recognise that it is blue or red if it have same amplitude/frenquency? Well, blue can be only if there is smaller amplitude green and red waves, but they must be realy small and if they are bit higher amplitude then there is white. To radiate only blue waves from many atoms there is they sumation untill they have same amplitude and then they holding the same amplitude in closed space... So how there can fly both amplitude waves like red, and blue. So don't need frenquencies to explain current coulours theory. And officlia coloure theory is wrong then. So now we 100 years working with wrong colourse theory. tongue.gif
Why waves is not like waves in air or water or matter like iron? Because on water waves are mechanical and in water or in air or in wood waves are not meachanical, but springer type, because molecules can move in one or in over direction by makin spring effect and this explains why all frenquency waves in air moving with same speed. For example in air waves traveling faster if air is hotter, because molecules traveling faster from one to another. In water waves aren't like springs and are mechanical like in my smallest spheres theory, where no place for spings (effects) and over things, becaue they already are in maximal density.

There need also rethink many things about atoms and colourse, but I think this theory is right. Atoms and electrons absorbing waves like some plastical water or somthing filled balls and thus actualy there no any absorbtion, but only vibration of all matter. And of course if this ball moving on water surface then it radiating waves, exactly in same way as charged particles like electrons. Who know, maybe neutron also radiating waves, but just imposible to check it?

Okay, some astronoms, may disagree with me and to say, that then some blue waves must to reach faster us than red waves, by factor of 2 times and farther stars must reach us after longer time and this is true, but they forgoting one small niuanse, that we flying at speed 0.9999999999999999999c and such distance is, that's right, farther stars reaching after longer time laugh.gif rolleyes.gif But sciencists will say, that farhter stars, but brighter must reach faster us than darker stars. Well, maybe exaclty this process going on. But there is small nuanse, that with bigger amplitude waves need longer time to excide atome to detect them. And you want to change those big amplitude waves into small amplitude waves (and to detect them) then nothing will work, because such conversions imposible, maybe you see small difraction, but this is not decrease amplitude of wave almost, but will need more such waves to registre it...
At least now I don't see any limits of imposibility of such briliant 100% new theory about electromagnetic waves. Does you see?
DavidD
So if bigger amplitude wavse can travel faster, then it means, that speed of light is not a limit and speed of electron also can't be limited, but just there is limit of energy and this particluarly means, that no any realtivity at all, but just is law according which need some energy to move. If you have very much energy, then you can travel at very big speed (maybe lenght decreasing in relativity means, particle distance increasing?..), but at bigger speed... Boring. But right..
Let's better talk about gravity speed. Gravity speed is also then bigger if object is bigger. Also coloumb force speed is bigger if cahrge is bigger. But this almost don't changing nothing, except revolution! This explains how possible that rotates about universe center so many galaxies without dialtion and in tackt...
There come new era of physics, DavidD physics cool.gif
DavidD
OK, here is principle of realativity.
Particle moving with accelration radiating electromagnetic waves. Bigger acceleration, bigger amplitude waves radiated (and they going faster and are longer). So if you at 0.99c particle accelerate to bigger speed, then it radaite bigger waves and need more and more energy for particle to accelerate it. Theoreticaly it is possible to accelerate particle to infinity speed, but such acceleration or will be infinity long or need infinity energy. Because we don't have very match energy on earth and universe, then limit for us is not speed of acceleration, but energy limit. And we connecting in all our civilization on earth energy limit with speed limit, but this is wrong. This is actualy only energy limit. And since particles itself have very mach energy then we thinking, that the can move accordint to newton laws, because we have many energy (and this energy used not linarly, but smaller) and our particles radianting small waves, then we thinking, that there is newtons laws and no relativity. It's very easy to compare this efect with car driving. Untill we going on small speed, we thinking, that there is newtons laws, but when we going on 300 km/h speed or 500 km/h speed, then we see, that energy increase like in relativistic speed twice and more because of air restriction (and maybe over friction). But if we turn off engine then car will stop, but in relativity our world this don't hapening, because between smallest spehere no friction like is friction between air and car...
DavidD
Ok, there is important point in my theory. Since like showing my theory about don't existation of entanglement, that each waves, when it is produced have some polarization. So it's explains like 'sea electromagnetic waves' can travel with diferent amplitudes and speeds and lenghts. Simple! Some of them have one polarization and some over and thus no disapearing of small waves when they combined.
I have no doubt, that my this theory about sea waves is right! There no many frenquencies waves like in current maxwell shmaxewll model and like curent borh model. Just some atoms better than over absorbing waves! There no quantization of waves! No quantization of atom radiation!!! Helium (I mean hydrogen) atom just radiating weaker waves, which weaker difracting!!! depending on orbit... Current atom theory is completly wrong!!! Current colourse theory is also completly wrong! Nature acting much more "digital" than we think and much more simple!!! There no diferent frenquencies and any oevr shitshits. But only longer and faster and bigger amplitude waves better difracting (I am 100% sure, that in water in small gap longer wave will better difract than shorter!). Because longer waves have like smaller obstacle and thus better difracting than small er waves! You see all is match!!!!!!!!!! Damn it. There don't exist solid matter! But only plazma! All mater is plazma! Electrons falling into nuclears and radiating electromagnetic waves. Different atoms radiating diferent amplitude waves (longer or shorter / faster or slower), which in same amount can be understooded as different energy waves, but since longer 'sea" waves better difracting then sciencists missleadingly interpretate/understood it as more powerfull and shorter wavelenght waves. But this is wrong. They actualy are longer and more powerfull. My smallest ball theory predicting realy fantastic things. I don't know what to say more, my theory predicting everything the same as current theory, but match with smallest balls theory. Schrodinger equation of course is wrong, but only have some good stuff of average distance and electrons configurations, because of coloumb force, which describing properties of atoms, but this is roughly model and natural model is more chaotic, but on the over hand since there is long time and relativity and many time to spread to all waves equaly then maybe those electrons holdings on some average distance, but still some of them must fall into nuclears and produce neutrons, which we frenquency see as proton/neutron transformations to each over. Then by spin or some over reasons neutron decaying into proton and electron and electron kinetic energy is radiated into orbit of atom and story begins again. Proton is not radiated because is traped between over protons, which holds toghether with spins and thus possible that smaller nuclears more frenquently radiating protons, but on the over hand bigger nuclears have more them... But proton still then fuse with electron and neutron then by spin force fuse with nuclear and so no escape is possible from atom to proton or electron or neutron.
I would say, that go farther than atom and to search quarks or somthing is not real, because there almost imposible to understood processes in atom. And to modelate some protein folding, which probably don't exist is apogey of stupidity. Proteins folds by average size limitations of some cell value or somthing. If you put thread(snacke) into water and it will folds, but protein folds inside water... But imagine that you put thread in very small value of water then it is folded and to unfold it, well, to unfold it is almost imposible and need bigger value. some disease may be because protein making loop laugh.gif and knot and this protein probably must die, but if it is strong then it cousing deasies maybe... Some proteins may misfold because they are wrong proteins and have wrong structure and cells mading wrong proteins with errors. This is then cell problem or even cell or DNA mutation, for DNA mutation according to my theory there no any limits and it can mutate very well from not very linar absorbtion of waves (waves disbalance). But it is good when cells becoming mutated, but they dieing and this probably going on in everybody and many cells daying because of mutations, but they replaced with new cells. But problem probably is when cell mutating and not dieing but reproducing wrong cells, and this wrong cells even making infaction to good cells, which is less possible or maybe imposible at all, but says, that most viruses infecting cells DNA with they DNA, but does realy sombody see such process? I suggesting, that virus just killing cell with it molecular structure like chemical. So worst thing in cancer probably is when mutated cell reproducing itself and eating and living like normal cell (like most current string and quantum sciencists). Then this cell if don't dieing faster and if reproducing faster than such type of cells becoming dominating and then becoming cancer, but such conciousnes is not very spreaded and most times we all have cancer cell, but they dieing, I think... In human brain, hm, in human brain cells dieng, but they can live long time, hm, but there is theories seems, that in brain cells also repducings and I more tend to agree with such theories, because to live very longly for one cell is too much, except maybe some glue cells very carefully geting food to them and so on. But still I think, that there is reproduction of brain cells as fast as they dieing. But it's mean, that axons also dieing because they are cells too. Well, this is but, since reproduced cells are in very limited place, when heh, where they can go? Not very far, huh? So they replaecing died cells in same place and roughly in same connections, but since cells dieing not very fast probably then total information aligining new cells to act like died cell, of course roughly, but for this is many axons for errors correction. But maybe this need to leave more for biologist, who probably don't sow through microscope how realy acting one brain cell -neuron. Neuron szie is about 100-1000 nm and he leaving probably from hour to waek or mount. So scincists bothering to wait so long and to watch so long at one neuron, because from sciencists wathcing he can die... unsure.gif
DavidD
Okay, why we don't see x rays or gamma rays? Well, one possible answer is that those waves 'photons' is not many, I mean there is high amplitude waves, but they are only of few polarizations instead like in visible rays many polarizations waves at same time. But as you correctly guesing, that gamma rays amplitude decreasing by r^2 and thus gamma rays sooner or latter will become conventional rays, but since they still have bigger amplitude in contrast with over waves then they by sciencists are detected as gamma rays instead visible or infrared waves. So actualy gamma rays after distance of say 100 km is somthing like visible rays! blink.gif wink.gif So gamma rays can't kill from cosmos or from sun, but actualy sun radiating big amplitude waves, which can eat skin and so on.
Now there somthing about polarization. If there flying many waves then possible that only small amount of waves becoming polarizer or in over words coming through and over is or reflected or aborbed and becoming like thermal waves, whatever... But according to my theory if there flying polarized produced wave, then it can go through with amplitude (cosx)^2. And there becmoing polarized wave projection onto possiblity to go through with some apmlitude... And if there is many polarized waves then they average possiblity to go through or more rpecisly they average amplitude will be (cos45)^2 or twice smaller. But diference between x rays and ligh probably is such, that light have more waves polarized at diferent angles, but amplitude is not counted and thus weaker, but in x rays there is less angles, because they was created artificialy and thus they amplitude is bigger and thus they can act in diverent over way and to be in rengen bones analizers. Or maybe even possible, that x-rays don't exist, but there is electrons rays, because like I know electrons can go through paper, but can't go through book, but can go through human body. Where is evidence, that x-rays is not reflected electrons? They have very big energy and thus they probably will not be seen in vilson camera, because they moving too fast and thus interacting too weakly. So actualy I more tend to think, that x-rays is electrons! At all according to my theory like I say after some little bit bigger distance gamma rays becoming usual visible rays. There is dangerouse only uranium deacay nuclears etc or neutrons radiation. But I still explain how x-rays still can exist, but then they dangerous (amplitude and lenght and speed) proportional to distance to them. But still I think that it is probably electrons. Also possible that when uranium devides there no radiation of gamma rays, but only kinetic energy of atoms and neutrons. Since seems, that there can be infinity orn very much diferent angles of polariations of many waves then seems, that there is diference between bigger amplitude waves and smaller. By the way, if there was many waves of diferent amplitude and if you polarize them then seems, that they have total bigger amplitude and they can become somthing like gamma or x-rays (but with one polarization). But there probably still everything depending on how much energy can absorb atom don't matter or it polarizet longer waves or not polarized shorter and slower waves (yes in my theory longer waves is more powerfull).
Ok, what is lazer? Well, it's just many waves sumation and going them through very small hole, that's all! Waves there can be polarized or somthing, but they must be in same direction, becouse going from one hole and possible that either very match amplitudes polariztions fits into one wave or increasing amplitude of wave or two processes at same time. So blue ray must radiate few amplitudes waves from biggest to smaller and green also, or green only one amplitude and red weak amplitude and almost a little bit higher. There no problems with this.
Some can see that in my theory there can be many waves of diferent polarization within one waves and can say, that if there will be more wave then they amplitude still increase because some can match and yes maybe, because is limited number of polarizations, because there no infinity small balls (maybe is?), but they can't no match, because of some diferent radiation but it's seems not likely, so maybe they sometimes match, but this seems, don't debunking my theory. Everything is ok with my theory.
At least now nobody will scare of gamma rays at big distance biggrin.gif
DavidD
Ok now radio crancks may wonder why radio waves of some certain frenquency working properly? Well, waves have some amplitude, which after distance decreasing, but here probably is realy such thing like frenquency, because longer waves traveling faster then if they amplitude becoming smaller then they speed decreasing but frenquency remaining the same. So radio waves is acceleration of electrons and deaceleration and then aceleration in oposit direction, thus it means, that electrons until acelerating in one direction, then radio wave amplitude increasing and if in over direction then radiowave amplitude decreasing and then again increasing with oposit sign and so on, you know this stuff, somthing like this. So radiowaves actualy have frenquency unlike maybe(?) over waves. But over waves is of course like sea waves, but they may have frenquency depending how long electron flying and deacelerating... But in visible waves there is everything so haotic that there actualy don't play any role frenquency, but only amplitude. But who know maybe there is some electrons falling into nuclears frenquency in some atoms slower in some faster then radiated. Maybe then my theory is wrong, but bigger amplitude waves still must fly faster. But maybe my theory is good even for radio waves because imposible to create diferent frenquency waves with diferent amplitude (unless they ahve diferent polarization or somthing...?). But how about this: in bigger frenquency there radiated bigger amplitude waves and at smaller frequency smaller amplitude. Those bigger amplitude waves vibrating faster electrons and thus electrons moving faster and smaller frenquency slower and electrons move slower and this electrons current is configurated and you hear in radio music... But some radio cranck can say, that then longer and bigger amplitude waves must come faster and to make all electrons vibrations faster before small amplitude waves. Yes, but they seems, that longer to accelerate electrons or simply it's distance is so small and this waves speed is unknow then this is almost no diference... And usualy in radios there used not frenquency diference, but amplitude diference like in AM (amplitude modulation) and unlike in FM (frenquency modulation). So my theory perfectly explains AM radio. Possible that frenquency radio working in this way: frenquency is decreased and increased and it's like bits and amplitude of wave, so then all amtch with my theory, bigger frenquency radiowaves becoming faster waves and more accelerating electrons and making biger curent and smaller frenquency radio waves going slower, but since speed diference is very small maybe 2 times or even smaller (many radios in 88-108 MHz) then speed of waves almost don't have impact and that's it don't used on low frenquencies possible and distance is small so it's almost don't have diference and bigger amplitude waves longer possible accelrating, because distance between then is bigger and they are longer so all fit with my theory! ph34r.gif
DavidD
In my textbook writen, that photoefect fully or mostly depdning on frenquency and not on light intensity. So I suggesting experiment, that hos possible to increase "frenquency". Need to pass light through polarizer and then total amplitude ( at one polarized angle) will increase and such amplitude maybe is more useful for photoefect, but also possible that even polarizer not perfectly aligning all waves according to some angle, because orentation of electrons in polarizer is not very perfect... But need to try pass light through polarizer if my textbook don't claiming nonsense...

And BTW, longer (my) waves from farther stars don't flying faster, because they are much longer and need much more time to absorb them. So everything match. My new theory is perfect.

for photoefect longer my waves can be more usefull, because they maybe longer accelerating electron in one direction and thus it can better use kinetic energy...
DavidD
Okay, according to my new theory about gravity, the photoefect is actualy electrons radiation! Photoefect making not wwaves, but electrons! It's explains why photoefect so bad through glass, because glass absorbing electrons. X-rays also electrons reflection. So our sun radiating very much electrons or protons, which are very accelerated to c, because sun have charge and this charge actualy is gravity. So sun emiting electrons or protons when neutron decaying on sun surface then thos particles are pushed from sun and reaching very big speed that can go thorugh atomosfere and weakly through glass. So photoefect is electrons radiation and x ray doing the same. Ultraviolet light is actualy electrons (or protons)! And x yray is 99% electrons. Nobody doing photoefect with gamma rays huh? Solarium light probably is also weak electrons. All mysteries is solved. And gamma rays may don't exist at all.

Edit: at all any light radiating electrons and thus photoefect is pure depending on electrons! Hotter object radiating more electrons (or neutrons or protons). So it's explains why "blue light" making better photoefect, because blue waves or creating more energetic electrons or just blur light radiating objects are hotter and more there is fussion with nuclears electrons and then decaying neutrons into protons and electrons, whcih probably and making photoefect.
So light and any over radiation don't making photoefect! Becasue all waves spreading probably equaly..

Edit2: possible that light pressure of sun 4/10^8 N/m^2 is actualy pressure of electrons from sun! Thus fromula h*f don't have any real implimetations.
edit3: or since one side was mirrored and one black when was measured pressure then possible that pressure of sun 4*10^-8 N/m^2 is actual energy of waves and light and is not such formula like E=h*f if photoefect is fake (electrons or protons).
DavidD
So I think that light pressure (if not electrons laugh.gif ) is 4*10^-8 N/m^2 of sun and this is actual energy of light and formula E=h*f is wrong and thus formula E=m*c^2 is also wrong. E=m - this is right formula! mc^2 don't have any sense and nothing will change if c^2 will be removed it just stupidity. It's nothing saying. Some stupid constant, which don't mean anything and don't have any sense. So such light energy is enough to excide retina I think and it don't doing any photoefect and this stuf doing electrons and electron difraction don';t exist it just simply scatering over protons or atoms... Light energy depending on amplitude, not very hot objects we don't see because amplitude is too small to excide retina. And hotter objects is red, because there no another smaller waves, which could be detected as red and then biggest waves as blue, but no, because over light is too weak and possible that for blue light need not only big amplitude but big single polarized amplitude...

edit: On the over hand c^2 making sense, but whatever... Photoefect of gamma or x rays or UV rays is reflected electrons, which then atracted by anode laugh.gif probably...
So possible model, that faster waves don't fussing (because of diferent polarizations angles) with slower waves and thus there is separation between faster waves and slower waves and it is then exactly the same as in official current theory waves energy and frenquencies. If there is radiated in one spot of 3 colourse in eye weak blue and strong red and then blue will be like red then it will be red. And if there will not be radiated weak blue, but only red and weak red then it will be understooded like red. I think the key is, that accordint to hot body radiation the radition can depend exponentionaly and if amplitudes depending linarly then it means, that this is red blue and green. Or simply we don't see weaker amplitude than red even at night, this explains why we red don't see as blue or possible that at all infrared rays don't have very weak amplitude and maybe at all infrared light is electrons or visible light, but which is visible only for cameras and not for human, because infrared waves can't have big amplitude according to my theory, because then they will be visible, except of polarization... So possible, that infrared light is also electrons and cameras detections nothing have to do with inrared light. Becuase any stronger infrared light becmoing visible (except that many polarized amplitudes wit in one disk)... Or like flame is blue and it is bigger amplitude and thus bigger energy, but seems, that according to presure law light energy is small and seems, that there mose possible that electrons it is energy and not waves and so better don't take electrons radiation, but whait untill electrons molecuels motions will reach you without electrons...
excaza
E=m cannot possibly work. The units of energy are Joules, the units of mass are kilograms.

Joules does not equal kilograms.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dimensional_analysis
DavidD
Okay possible theory, why blue amplitude remaining blue. Because there is bigger amplitude in one polarization waves, which we call UV rays and which we don't see if they are not expanded and with loosed amplitude. So for example in young double slit experiment there coming many amplitudes waves and then we see only higger blue and visible, which before was invisible UV rays. And this means, that atoms somehow absorbing only bigger or smaller amplitude waves and not many smalls but with random polarization and polarizers actualy don't increasing amplitude of waves, because either those amplitudes interference or they are still on very small angle separated from each over. I more tend to think, that they are separated at very small angle, but if them are very much then they possible can fuse into one big amplitude... For example green grass better reflecting one amplitudes than over don't matter how ridiculouse it sounds laugh.gif No, maybe realy there is diferent frenquencies waves. on water surface things maybe is diferent because there is gravity... Or need to see does in young experiment there is diferent results with smaller and bigger amplitude waves. Or colourse we realy understand depending how much is diference between amplitudes. But how to explain green grass radiation when absorbed white? Maybe grass atoms absrobing some amplitudes wavse and then radiating more bigger amplitude and less smaller amplitude diferent contrast? Maybe. So it seems, that from two variables frenquency and amplitude there possible to explain all colourse and everything only with one variable - amplitude... Possible that infrored radiation is realy weak visible light and if somebody claims that have big amplitude infrared waves then it's only possible if those waves is in many diferent polarizations. IF there coming many infrared in room then they possible don't decrease or visible light becoming them...
DavidD
Now more hypothetical part...
Earth inside is charged positivly and this atoms inside earth or plazma have small density, but it hodling electrons. Earth surface possible charged negativly. Thus sund is atractive like by gravity. Or maybe there at all inside earth is some layers of charge, but total layers charge is positive or negative. Sun is also positive or nergative or with layers. Possible that sun is positive and earth surface negative and thus earth is atracted by sun. Possible that galaxies centers are negative and planets positive... Possible, that sun radiating electrons to earth surface, which can be UV rays.
This charge theory possible explains "dark energy" and "dark matter". Because charge is harder predict in each massive object like star, because it nothing have to do with mass, then can be some miscalculations and thus this tends to think about "dark nonsense"...

My waves theory, that all waves is waves like in sea and all waves have the same frenquency, but diferent speed and amplitude (bigger amplitude - bigger speed and wavelenght) predicts, that some galaxies of universe can be missunderstoodly understooded, that universe expanding faster than light, because there can be detected some misinterpretated redshift, which can be weak amplitude and disbalance in my theory, that weaker amplitude have shorter lenght... Also there is some measurments, that in matter there is loosing waves "frenquency" (according to official theory) - becmoing "longer". But this can be because matter not linarly retriving/;retransmiting waves, because of atoms/electrons structure and configuration... (even vacum have some small amount of atoms).

So according to my theory there need be very careful, when talking about redshift...

My theory correctly predicinging that "bigger frenquency photons" better difracting because they are actualy longer waves and "smaller frenquency photons" difracting not so much, becuase they actualy are shorter and slower waves... So this is exactly like in sea/water waves and in current oficial theory everything is oposit and wrong...
DavidD
More corrections into electrodynamic...
Electromagnetic waves don't exist. This is misunderstanding and there no any prove electroMagnetic waves... There is just waves, which have energy like water waves. And not only charged particles radiating this waves, but also neutrons, when they flying with acceleration, but since neutrons don't have charge and can't be accelerated to big speed and is hard detected then nobody can hold them and see, does they radiating or not radiating waves, when moving. So acctauly possible that lorenze law about motion of wire through which going electrons is correct also for neutrons, but since neutrons don't moving nother then possible that noone observe lorenze law for neutrons. Of course possible that neutrons don't 'makes' lorenze force, because don't seems, that hard to check it for neutrons between magnets. But still possible, that neutrons radiating waves, when flying with acceleration, what is almost imposible to check nor to detect, because of imposibility to isolate neutrons...
So according to my theory any particle moving with acceleratio radiating 'electromagnetic' waves. Bigger acceleration - stronger radiation. For example supose that to reach speed 1 m/s electron radiating 1 'photon'. Then to reach speed 2 m/s electron radiating 3 photons, because one photon to reach 1 m/s and 2 photons to reach 2 m/s (because at bigger speed there is bigger aceleration relative to standing point). And to accelerate electron to 3 m/s need 1+2+4=7 photons. And to accelerate from 0 to 4 m/s need 1+2+4+8=15 photons. So number of photons needed increasing exponentionaly or 1+x!! . Where x-1 m/s .
To accelerate to 10 m/s need 1+2+4+8+16+32+64+128+256+512=1023 photons. Or about 2^10=1024. So untill waves are very small then they can be ignored, but after some time radiated waves energy becmoing very big. This probably is not actual law, because enshtein formula is not this m=m_0/(1-v/c), but this m=m_0/(1-(v/c)^2)^0.5, but who can say, taht this formula is not exponentional, but with some very small coeficient? So enstein formula is exponentional, but only with more complicated law... So any particle radiating waves and this explains limit of particles moving speed. Why particle mass increase? No, it doesn't increas! But near to particle there is waves, which have big pushing energy. If you try to stop particle, then all this waves energy is gived to you and you thinking, that this particle have big mass... Ou, particle flying without acceleration... Well, possible that particle integrates into wave structure and himself becmoming like long wave... What can be diference between wave and electron scatering anyway? So, yes possible, taht particle becmoning like long big amplitude wave, which have small frenquency... So like imposible instantly to stop electron, then electron smaller difracting,m because longer and he just slowly giving energy to matter and his wavelenght becmoing shorter and shorter and amplitude smaller and smaller. Or possible that electron att all can interference with over electrons and aprticles and thus he giving all energy because stucking and then untill becoming his amplitude and wavelengh shorter he can't go through and difracting. But of course he can't split like 'electromagnetic' waves. He first must give his energy until his size become smaller... That's way fast electrons bad going through not air and not water matter. Since human body is full of water then x-rays don't going through bones... Paper significantly reducing electron speed if electron don't making hole in it. So why there is so nessasary, that electron would be wave? Because only this explain why electron have big mass at relativsitc speed, because his amplitude and wavelenght significanlty increasing! This is true for all solid particles. In atoms electrons have prety long waves, but I doubt that electron can interfere with himself or with over electron... Possible this explains why electron don't falling into nuclear. Because when he falling his speed increasing and wavelenght also, but sometimes electron (and proton) may fuse, because they somehow by spins or somthing over falling with small speed or somthing...
But if electron wavelenght becoming longer at relativistic speed, when how at all it is possible to fly at relativistic speed? Well, maybe imposible for big objects? rolleyes.gif And possible only if spaceship increasing size?
But I think I found simple solution why increasing electron mass, ha. When electron flying at relativistic speed, then his have big speed, yes? And if you want to decrease it speed, then will be radiated bi amount of waves. That's all! Electron don't have any big mass, but just hard to stop it, because he radiating many electromagnetic waves and there produced many energy, when particle deacelerated. So I think this onece and for all debunking electron -particle-wave nature and electron and over aprticle is just particles and not waves and electrons difraction is somewhy very similar to gamma rays difraction, so either one of them is electrons, eiehter they are... I think gamma rays and electrons is electrons and electrons difraction is electrons scattering over protons or at all scatering over matter... But also possible, that electrons difraction is electrons deaceleration and creation of gamma rays, which then difract in crystal. So electron difraction for now is very very doubfull...
DavidD
My gravity hypothesis is wrong, becaus if earth is charged negativly, humans and molecuels positivly and sun possitivly and moon possitivly then on moon should be antigravity? Maybe NASA hiding this? laugh.gif

On my waves theory.
Longer and faster waves amplitude is bigger cause they moving faster.

Each matter radiating or reflecting and absorbing combination of amplitudes and this is each matter code of coloure, which understand our eyes.

So seems, that 'faster than light' speed is possible bu need exponentionaly amount of energy for this and nobody have even close amount of energy or maybe imposible because of same reson. But then seems, that there is not exponentional but some over law, but how for sure to check it if say law accuracy is +/-0.001? Or maybe then some problem with radiation of waves, which then becmoing somthing diferently act? But maybe this my exponentional law is good ont he over hand, because if need energy more and more then it is the same...
DavidD
On the over hand charge theory can't be so easy debunked, probably...
Say, earth surface is negative, withing eacht charge is positive and humans are positive. Then on small distnce humans are atracted and on big distance charge becmoing dominated positive and such distance like moon. Moone then is all negative and thus is atracted by charge inside earth. Sun is also negative and thus atracting earth. Of couse it's ridiculouse and i don't believe in it more, just for fun... Still it is more real, than string theory or quantum computer laugh.gif
Maybe gravity have only neutrons, but it's then more with analizing neutrons stars dry.gif
DavidD
Okay, fatality for quantum physics.
Photoefect may be either electrons either UV rays, but this almost don't have diference. Supose that photoefect making waves in my theory. Then waves pushing some electrons from they orbits and then electrons some are farhter then part of waves is reflected from inside structure of matter and going back and then those waves pushing electrons outside. It is obviouse, that photoefect effiecency can't be more than 50%. Now if there is electrons, then electrons also reflecting from atoms inside and hiting to electrons in atoms from inside to outside and making photoefect. Here seems, effiecncy in this case can't be very big at all, but electrons maybe is pushed into nuclear and fused and then atom radiating neutronm, which then decaying into proton and electron and since protons is heavier he remaining and electron escaping... Anyway, there no classical limits for explaining photoeffect.
My theory claims, that there no at all any quantum effects and quantum theory all is wrong till every quant... Entanglement is wrong, superposition is wrong, wavecolapse is wrong, waveparticle duality is wrong, wave frenquency theory is wrong, spin is wrong, strong force is particluarly wrong, heisbenger uncertaitny principle is just diferent kinetic energy particle ability to propogate in environment, so HUP is wrong, schrodinger equation is wrong. SChrodinger equation is just effect of electrons configuration (because of charge and orbital magnetic moment(maybe)) and spins configuration. In benzine there is the same process like in chain reaction of uranium atoms, electrons is somethere by big amplitude wave devided into over molecules and then according to mc^2 produced over waves, which doing uncontroled chain reaction, but for this need contact with air if no such contact, when benzine only firing... In water is not such reaction, because water division is not devid(s)ion (of single molecule) or creation new molecules, but only molecules devision, that's why water don't burn... Chemistry very highly depending on electrons configuration and for this need just calcualte charges and configuration of electrons about nuclear and I am sure, that will be goten the same atoms and molecuels structures and maybe even much more precise and maybe will explain much more some protein folding or over things. This all depending only on covalent ionization energy and electrons structure-gaps... There no need any wave function inschrodinger equation, there no need any electron-waves duality and any phase mysteries. All molecules and atoms are prety stable, because waves loosing they amplitude and speed and spreading everywhere very equaly and holding some average entropy or somthing and thus in all atoms there is average configurated distance and so on of electrons... But us you see there no any wariantions for proper working like in quantum mechanic, except very stable waves spreading "Architecture"... For example, why uranium atom deviding slower neutrons? According some quantum theory assumptions, because slower neutrons have bigger uncertainty and this can be true, because slower neutrons many times reflected from nuclears have more chance to shoot into nuclear, than fast electrons also don't interacting and going outside of matter, because of they very small size. Anither reason can be, that slower neutron longer being in nuclear and thus making bigger chance and better chance for coloumb force to push...
Conclusion: all quantum mechanic is wrong. blink.gif sad.gif ph34r.gif wink.gif
excaza
rolleyes.gif
DavidD
Here is interesting consequence. Possible that even enshtein theory is not precise.
Electron acceleration depending on frenquency in electric cirquit. But this not nessasary is true, because in most cases there is more electrons, that bigger aceleration of eecltrons, but according textbook, but maybe this is right if electron speed is small.. So according to textbook E=a=f^2. So if increase frenquency two times then energy or electric field increasing 4 times - quadraticaly, if frenquency incrse 3 times, electric field 9 times, but who actualy understand electric field? There is some density of electric field which is I=E^2, so if icreasing frenquency 3 times then total energy increasing 3^4=81 times. Somthing similar like with enstein square and quadrat, which decreasing result, becaus it is 4tical. So to reach kinetic energy of E=0.5mv^2 need to reach speed and need energy aceleration v^2... So if we want to reach kinetic energy and speed 3 m/s then need will be radiated 4.5 photons, but at each step acceleration is not the same relative to standing point, hm... So there is some very strange conjecture. Aha, there is twice aceleration. But after each meter acceleration increasing like this 0.5v^2 * 0.5v^2 * 0.5v^2 and there is some integral. And since electron have surface quadratic then densitiy and intensity increasing quadraticlay like I=E^2=a^2=f^4. How there to integrate enshtein relativity theory with this all? Okey say we want increase speed twice then say radiation will increase 2^4=16 times. If we want to increase speed from 0.5c to 1c then radiation should increase 16 times, but this seems, ridiculouse, because this like from 1 MeV accelerate to 16 MeV. But in acclerators there is reached energy 100 times bigger than rest mass. And even bilions times. But probably 100 times than by newton theory. Not so much, huh? So possible maybe need to take one mote time 16^2=256, because acceleration and energy for speed have nothing to do... Then it's means, that to accelerate from 0.5c to c need not twice more energy but 256 times more energy. Then possible that sciencists don't have so much energy and electron don't reaching bigger speed than light. Also possible that cosmic particles traveling faster than ligh, but who knows they speed? They living 256 times more or even more if they are lighter... And maybe sciencists can't accelerate to bigger speed, because of they inconcistnce to work they electric field at bigger than c speed? And not balanced for such speed? But maybe they simply don't have so much energy for such strong electric field (256 times more energy is not joke). Maybe electricity speed is also not limited, but limited speed of detectors and thus amount of energy detection. Because to accelerate electrons need more energy and to detect this energy... So possible that charge and magnetic field acting with infinity speed. And say if from 0.5 to c need 256 times more energy than from 0 to 0.5c, then from c to 2c need also 256 times more energy, that is out of sciencists possibility. Because possible, that only at 0.5c speed particles radiating very strong waves and at over speed don't radiating significant energy of particle. time slowing of course because of tendation to decay separatign waves energy, which will be radiated so particles, which tend to decay radiating small electromagnetic waves even when they flying without acceleration. But then they somehow still decaying... Of course if such particles at all exist, because how to decaying neutron at big speed imposible to check, because of imposiblity to accelerate because of charge... But I more tend to think, that for accelration from 0.5c to 1c need roughly 16 times more energy. OR more precisly 1.547*16=18 times more energy. Supose, that for 0.5c you need 10^10 J, then for c speed need 16*10^10 J. Not so much, just need time and correct electricity regulation in cilindr, but electricity slower accting, than particle can fly and thus electricity in most cases slowing down particle. Sometimes maybe sciencists geting... Anyway, possible that enstein formula is absolutly wrong, more analize in over post amybe...
DavidD
Okay, electrons acceleration in coliders is to about 10 GeV and more maybe up to 100 GeV and maybe not. Let's calcualte how much energy need to acceleare proton to 0.5c speed.
We can use newton formula:
E=0.5mv^2=1.6726/10^27 *(1.5*10^8)^2=3.76335/10^11 J =235209375 eV=235 MeV.
235 MeV*16=3.76335 GeV. Hey, almost 10 GeV! Maybe +/-0.6 is errors? Maybe they can't capture single proton and saying, that some too much or too small number of protons accelerated? And maybe somtimes they realy accelerating faster than ligh? And like say, electricisty speed is smaller than c and about 0.5c or at most 0.7c-0.9c...

So enshtein relativity theory very possible that is wrong.
DavidD
In textbook writen, that for radio is match better higher frenquencies, because increasing frenquency 2 times energy of waves increasing 2^4=16 times, but I think this is wrong and energy increasing 2^2=4 times, because if energy increasing 16 times, then if for 100 MHz radio neew 1 W, then for 100 kHz radio need 1000^4=10^12=10 TW. Not so much, huh? Then if say radio station 100 MHz working at 1mW then 100 kHz working at 10^9 W=1GW. Still not so much, huh? Like atomic reactor consuming energy. Then if for 1mikroW 100 MHz radio station need, for 100 kHz need 1 MW station - mroe real. One microW is say 1 mV and 1 mA.
Somewhy in this place I don't trust my textbook and I think, that radio waves 2^2 acting. But what it means? Yes, that there no any limits for acceleration of particles and that relativistic law don't exist! I long time wonder how this proccessors working at 3 GHz if they can travel only such distance in about 15 GHz, but for quadratic traveling need much more speed of electricity.So I concluding, that electricity speed measurments is wrong and electricity have infinity speed, but possible that on smaller distance speed of electricity is measured faster, because need smaller wire and smaller charging incomingof electrons into wire and thus all goes faster, than in big long big frenquency wire. So speed of electricity and speed of gravity is infinity. Magnetism speed also infinity. Electric and magnetic fields speeds are infinity.
So any particle is possible to accelerate to any speed and since noboty know many about particles then maybe living they not longer? Maybe some cosmic particles is created already in earth? Anyway even if particles can live longer then it is only because, if they will split then deacelereate and radiates very big waves and this holding them longer possible...
But since processores can't control LHC faster than light, because of processors speed then at all somthing strange and not scincific going on in such colaiders, there where no at all no any big speed, but jsut many 1000 km/s protons, which creating many noisy. Or they acelerated to big speed and sciencists don't creating scheme to accelerate them more, but still how they would know that they energy is from relativistic speed and not from somthing else? And yes, increasing not only kinetic energy of particles, but also energy, which they will radiate when will be stoped, but this energy possible still not significantly large than particle kinetic energy. So possible there no any mc^2 energy, but only E=m. Oh yes, atoms mass defect is mc^2. But maybe there is only neutron kinetic energy, which just deviding thread. Imagine, that there is spring wich very strongly supressed and only one small tread holding it and if you divide it then kinetic energy of protons charge will be released. But there says, that is heavier... Maybe more neutrons, huh? Anihilation producing energy mc^2. Who measure this energy? Maybe just m? Maybe at all no anihilation and antiparticles?
Seems, that enshtein also was cranck...
DavidD
Okay, since my waves theory very strangly and mysticlay explaining colourse, then probably current waves theory is right and waves don't travles faster than speed of light. So electromagnetic waves are like waves in air. There is gap between them and then flying at certain speed. This speed depending on distance between smallest balls. This distance is equal to or almost infinity part of smallest sphere or some 1/1000000000000000000 or some 1/10^100, but obviously that very small and this explains limit of speed c... So why going on polarization? Polarization is just the same vibration, but longer waves expanding faster than shorter (the same like in air) so if waves are polarized then they almost don't expanding and there flying some fringers/fingers of air type waves. If this fingers of waves going through ortogonal polarizer, then they somehow loosing they wave structure and becoming more like spots and then probably more easily absorbed and alsmost can't difract or they just then difracting and interferencing and just becoming some incoherent aborbtion process or maybe this waves never will be able to excide atoms or just by difraction changing they direction and thus are absorbed. So there much more realistic that waves are the same like in air! Bigger speed making bigger frenquency waves and smaller speed of say electrons amking smaller frenquency waves. But there seems, that still must be some vibration instead just speed like in my previouse theory. Well, those vibrations can create some electrons rotations or atoms motions or just Borh model rambling and schrodinger equation... This means, that smallest spheres have mass and on they mass possible depending light speed. So seems, that there imposible to describe distance between those spheres. But only can be conclusiont, that very big amplitude not big frenquency waves can create prety big gap between spheres and this gap can eat matter, because then such things like electrons don't exist and particles will become electromagnetic waves or somthing. But possible that in universe don't exist such big gaps. And also if infinty space hodling only one sphere gap then this gap spreading everywhere will make, that between spheres is infinity small gap and thus speed of light should be infinity unless spheres mass is infinity small or almost don't exist...
So seems, that some things in quantum mechanic is not wrong like frenquency, possible particluarly schrodinger equation...
DavidD
Okay, I think I found consequence, between radiated energy and energy of particle.
So kinetic energy or aceleration is a=0.5*v^2, but radiated waves energy is 0.25*v^4, because waves are radiated not according to acceleration, but according to acceleration relative to standing point.
thus say, that particle have kinetic energy mv^2 roughly say v^2 J.
So to accelerate in some untis of particle need to speed c need c^2=9*10^17 J, say and energy which will be radiated by particle is say c^4 /10^10=8.1*10^33 /10^10=8.1*10^23 J. Relativity, huh? At small speed say v=1000 m/s, kinetic energy of particle is 10^6 J and radiated energy 1000^4 /10^10=100 J. So at small speed radiated energy is much smaller. But then it's means, that possible to fly at speed of light, why not? Since sincists can accelerate electron to mass of proton. Then just need to calculate coefiecient of waves.
(c^4 /x)/v^2=2000,
c^4 * v^2 =2000*x,
x=c^4 * v^2 /2000,
x=8.1*10^33 *9*10^16 /2000=3.645*10^47;
if x=0.25*0.5*3.645*10^47=4.55625*10^46 aproximatly possible is x.
So then electromagnetic waves radiated energy is aproximatly particle size or just particle or mass to divide by x, I mean, particle mv^4 /x=mv^4 /4.55625*10^46 . But mass here can be wrong, beacuase all can depend not on mass, but on particle size and I am very doubful about coliders, because need processors to synchronize them, which would work faster than speed of light and realy faster than speed of electricity. So my formula can be right and enshtein ramblig formula is wrong. And according to my theory, when particle flying without acceleration he radiating energy mv^2 /x=mv^2 /4.55625*10^46, so it's almost not seen and thus sciensits say, that without acceleration there no radiation. So possible that our earth radiating energy, but it is so small, when roatates about sun, that it alsmots don't making any friction even after bilions years... Earth radiating energy like it flyign with acceleration v^2 /4.55625*10^46, but I would say, that more pressure from sun pushin earth than earth becmoing rotates slower... bilions yeasr is only about 10^17 seconds so it will not radiate even close energy to mv^2, but only 10^17 * mv^2 /10^46=mv^2 /10^29, this is so small energy per earth live.
So enstein was wrong and coliders are wrong.
Time stoping becoming only from waves radiation, because electrons must fly slower, becuase many energy radiating in waves phorm. This is the same about particles decay, because for decaying need more strong waves to vibrate.
DavidD
So, YES, there is medium in space or matter, this medium is smallest particles, it's explains why radiation energy is y^4.
So according to my smallest particles theory any object depending on it size radiating 'electromagnetic' waves of energy 0.5*v^2, where v is speed of particle. If particle moving with aceleration then it radiating energy a^2=0.25*v^4.
So I prove that there no vacum in universe and anythere. All space is filled with smallest spheres, through which going air like waves.
Even if enshtein relativistic theory is right, my theory still is not wrong and still everythings acts according to this law, except maybe particles size changing it charge. So air waves also is possible to polarize, but need very deep fringers/finger in matter to check air waves polarization, but air waves are a little bit diferent than my theory waves, because smallest balls is not atoms, but spheres... I am now only not sure does universe must fluctate for traveling light through space like in air there is thermal fluctation of molecules of air.
But seems, that even air have it "relativistic" speed, because at very big speed object will burn in air so in air imposible to travel faster than some speed...
DavidD
In over words to accelerate particle to speed v need energy 0.5mv^2, but when particle flying at speed, he radiating energy E=v, but total energy will be radiated is like kinetic E=0.5v^2, but since particle moving at aceleration radiating also energy and stronger than just on some speed, then total energy is E^2=0.25v^4 will be radiated to accelerate particle to speed v. When particle flying some distance from point A to point B, then he radiating energy E=v*t, where t is time. So radiated in this case energy is very small and moving at speed v radiated energy is almost invisible and that's what I call friction os spheres/medium...
For example particle flying at speed 1 m/s radiating 1 ball/s, at 2 m/s radiating 2 balls/s, 3 m/s radiating 3 balls/s. But why not 0.5v^2 ? Well, mayby exactly 0.5v^2 balls/s, because if there need force always, then means, that there is acceleration. So more possible that at 2 m/s particle radiating 0.5*2^2=2 balls/s, at 3 m/s particle radiating 0.5*3^2=4.5 ball/s, at 4 m/s particle radiating 0.5*4^2=8 balls/s and so on. Now if you want accelerate particle to speed v then need 0.5*0.5(v^2)^2=0.25v^4 balls energy. For example, to accelerate particle to 1 m/s speed need energy E=0.25v^4=0.25*1^4=0.25 balls energy, and to accelerate to 2 m/s speed need (will be radiated mad.gif ) E=0.25*2^4=4 balls. To accelerate to 3 m/s, will be radiated 0.25*3^4=20.25 balls. Per acceleration to 4 m/s speed (from 0 m/s) will be radiated 0.25*4^4=64 balls.
So it match with my textbook data that on twice bigger frenquency particle radiating 16 times bigger energy, or at 3 times bigger frenquency there is radtion 3^4=81 times bigger. So everything match with my smallest balls theory, that there is medium. So particle flying at some speed loosing it energy, but almost invisible, because very small amount. For example at speed v=0.5c=1.5*10^8 m/s particle radiating less energy per 100 seconds, than it will radiates if will be accelerated to v=1000 m/s, because
P_v=0.5*(1.5*10^8)^2=1.125*10^16 balls (or say J/s=W),
W_v=E_v=1.125*10^16 (balls/s) *100 (s) =1.125*10^18 balls (or J);
W_a=E_a=0.25*(1000)^4=2.5*10^11 balls (or say J).
Bad example in this case at 0.5c speed per 100 seconds more radiated energy of ~10 milions times, than will be radiated energy for particle acceleratio to 1000 m/s speed. So let's compare with particle acceleration to c/3000=10^5 m/s=100 km/s:
W_a=0.25*(10^5)^4=2.5*10^19 balls (or Joules). So accelerated particle to speed 100 km/s will radiate ~10 times more energy than particle flying at 0.5c=150 000 km/s speed 100 seconds. So possible that particle at 0.5c radiating some radiowaves or infrared waves, which almost can't be detected.
For example radio with frenquency 100 Mhz radiating some radiowaves, which energy of single electron radiation is 0.25*f^4=0.25*(10^8)^4=2.5*10^31 balls/s.
And particle which flying with speed 0.5c radiating 1.125*10^16 balls/s. Somthing wrong, because frenquency can't be equal to speed or acceleration, acceleration is a=f^2 so 0.5*(10^8)^2=5*10^15 balls/s. So possible, that particle radiating the same energy like one electron in radio station cirquit of 100 Mhz. So ver small energy...
Now why particles radiating biger frenquency waves instead bigger amplitude like in dynamics of speakers? Well, since particles are very small, then... On the over hand it depending on acceleration, but why still, oh, yes, why? Why? Well, possible, that particles like some planes radiating all frenquency waves, but more big frenquency waves and there still no evidence about gamma rays radiation or x rays... At bigger temperature particles faster vibrating with bigger frenquency, but they radiating many frenquencies waves. Well, maybe big amplitude and small frenquency radiation just nobody can detect. Usualy in air vibrations, shorter waves have smaller amplitude and longer waves have bigger amplitude and they both is hearing with same amplitude, but jsut then normalized, because shorter waves vibrating more frenquently and with bigger speed. The bigger amplitude the bigger vibration speed of both waves (shorter or longer). So maybe if faster moving particle he radiating bigger frenuency waves. Or if with bigger aceleration... So to create big amplitude small frenquency waves need very match electrons to vibrate or if one electron, then he must be at some big voltage or somthing, that he would accelerate to very big speed and then go back and so then would be long big amplitude wave. So h*f is particularly correct and precisly there all waves have the same properties like in air. For example if you want to create very big amplitude long wave then need very fast acelerate particle to say 0.1c speed in distance of 1000 km and then deaccelerate and to make to go back this particle and then there will be very long wave, but seems, that particle with this all deacelerations itself will radiate waves, because he sometimes will fly faster than wave, what is unusual in air waves. Also possible that longer wave better reflecting, but probably just shorter waves usualy created with bigger amplitude than longer waves, because distance between vibration gap is the same, but impulse of wave and speed is bigger of shorter wave (how then it flying not faster, you ask), but possible that because there is fluctations then speed is the same like in air or possible, that shorter-faster wave taking more balls pushing sumation and thus speed is the same as just with smaller balls sumation-pushation like longer-slower wave-impulse. Nature just won't to create equal waves, the same energy you can sear at some 20-20000 Hz, but not at 10^15-10^16 Hz, where just no such big things without gaps which vibrating very long distance. For example your tongue for longer waves vibrating about in distance of say 2-5 mm and for shorter waves it vibrating only 0.02-0.05 mm, but you hearing the same amplitude for bigger amplitude speed increasing and distance of vibration increasing, but frenquency remaining the same. And as you see for small particles and objects there is very hard to vibrate on very big distance. If you with hand in distance 10 cm would be able to vibrate at 10^18 Hz frenquency, then you will radiate very big amplitude some radiowaves. But you will need even more energy, because particles in your hand will become radiate energy and because they are small, they at bigg frenquency just can't radiate long waves like if you will do very much atom size gaps in dynamic and will turn on it to hear some 20-100 Hz waves and you will hear probably only very short waves or nothing. So I think I give plenty much reasons, why there is such thing like h*f, but which of course don't means any quants, but just small particles imposiblity to radiate long waves with big amplitude.

excaza
QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 16 2008, 01:32 AM)
Okay, I think I found consequence, between radiated energy and energy of particle.
So kinetic energy or aceleration is a=0.5*v^2, but radiated waves energy is 0.25*v^4, because waves are radiated not according to acceleration, but according to acceleration relative to standing point.
thus say, that particle have kinetic energy mv^2 roughly say v^2 J.
So to accelerate in some untis of particle need to speed c need c^2=9*10^17 J, say and energy which will be radiated by particle is say c^4 /10^10=8.1*10^33 /10^10=8.1*10^23 J. Relativity, huh? At small speed say v=1000 m/s, kinetic energy of particle is 10^6 J and radiated energy 1000^4 /10^10=100 J. So at small speed radiated energy is much smaller. But then it's means, that possible to fly at speed of light, why not? Since sincists can accelerate electron to mass of proton. Then just need to calculate coefiecient of waves.
(c^4 /x)/v^2=2000,
c^4 * v^2 =2000*x,
x=c^4 * v^2 /2000,
x=8.1*10^33 *9*10^16 /2000=3.645*10^47;
if x=0.25*0.5*3.645*10^47=4.55625*10^46 aproximatly possible is x.
So then electromagnetic waves radiated energy is aproximatly particle size or just particle or mass to divide by x, I mean, particle mv^4 /x=mv^4 /4.55625*10^46 . But mass here can be wrong, beacuase all can depend not on mass, but on particle size and I am very doubful about coliders, because need processors to synchronize them, which would work faster than speed of light and realy faster than speed of electricity. So my formula can be right and enshtein ramblig formula is wrong. And according to my theory, when particle flying without acceleration he radiating energy mv^2 /x=mv^2 /4.55625*10^46, so it's almost not seen and thus sciensits say, that without acceleration there no radiation. So possible that our earth radiating energy, but it is so small, when roatates about sun, that it alsmots don't making any friction even after bilions years... Earth radiating energy like it flyign with acceleration v^2 /4.55625*10^46, but I would say, that more pressure from sun pushin earth than earth becmoing rotates slower... bilions yeasr is only about 10^17 seconds so it will not radiate even close energy to mv^2, but only 10^17 * mv^2 /10^46=mv^2 /10^29, this is so small energy per earth live.
So enstein was wrong and coliders are wrong.
Time stoping becoming only from waves radiation, because electrons must fly slower, becuase many energy radiating in waves phorm. This is the same about particles decay, because for decaying need more strong waves to vibrate.

For pete's sake, learn how to write equations.


Acceleration is not kinetic energy, and neither one is V^2.

Energy is not V^4.

c^2 does not give you Joules.

c^4 does not give you joules.

c^4 * v^2 does not give a displacement.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dimensional_analysis
DavidD
For bless of god, shut up! I know about what I talking!
Particles which moving with speed v radiating energy 0.5v^2 and thus moving slower and slower, but this is almost invisible. So supose that 0.5v^2=d. Then by accelerating particle to v speed it will radiated 0.5d^2 energy, but since d=0.5v^2, then to accelerate particle to v speed it will radiates 0.25v^4 energy.
I prove my smallest spheres theory!!! There is spheres in cosmos, which deacelerating particles and it is not related with particles charge, but it depends on particle size, but since probably all particles neutrons, portons, electrons and so on have almost the same size then they radiating the same energy or "friction" is the same.
Electromagnetic waves don't have any electric and magnetic properties, but is just exactly the same as air waves, they pushing electrons and then creating electricity potencial diference and then there going then vibrating electricity going to earth or just vibrating into capacitor...
Maxwell electrodynamic theory is also wrong!

edit: when particle flying at speed v, he radiates energy of 0.5v^2 'W' and to accelerate particle to v speed it will radiate 0.25v^4 'J'. 1 J=1 W*s. So for example flying 1 second at 10000 m/s speed particle radiating 0.5*10000^2=5*10^7 'J' energy. And accelerated particle to 10000 m/s will radiate 0.25*10000^4=2.5*10^15 'J' energy. Accelerated particle (from 0 m/s) to 100 m/s will radiate 0.25*100^4=2.5*10^7 'J', - twice less than flying at 10000 m/s speed one second.
prometheus
QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 16 2008, 11:28 AM)
For bless of god, shut up! I know about what I talking!

laugh.gif Thats a very good joke.
DavidD
QUOTE (prometheus+Jul 16 2008, 01:33 PM)
laugh.gif Thats a very good joke.

Thats a very stupid cranck.
prometheus
QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 16 2008, 01:54 PM)
Thats a very stupid cranck.

Dude, you can't even spell and you're trying to write the theory of everything - something physicists have been trying to do for centuries. It's really not going to happen is it?! laugh.gif
DavidD
Here is simpler example, particle on medium acting with some newtons force. And thus loosing his speed or aceleration. If particle flying at speed v, then will be radiated 0.5v^2 'J' energy untill particle complitly will stop. But energy 0.5mv^2 J is much bigger than 0.5v^2 and so need much more radiated energy untill particle will stop. So possible that cranck is right, because if distance increasing quadraticaly because of increased amplitude... Like in my textbook, that at bigger radiation distance is like closer and thus from where this over quadrat, but cranck only particularly right. Because kinetic energy of particle is much bigger than radiated energy, so possible this explains, why eath almost don't loosing it speed, becuase Earth kinetic energy is much bigger than radiated friction energy and this seems as there no any friction.
Supose, that kinetic energy of particle is 0.5mv^2, then radiated energy is ~0.5kmv^2, where k is koeficient say k=1/10^10, then say 1 kg object kinetic energy at 10000 m/s is 0.5mv^2=5*10^7 J and radiated energy is ~0.5kmv^2=0.5*10000^2 /10^10=0.005 J. Roughly, because depends on particle size and not on mass radiated energy, but since electron mass 'only' ~2000 times smaller than proton, then this is not big problem. So deacelerate earth need 5*10^7 /0.005 =10^10 times more energy of radiation, than it was radiated, when earth was accelerated. Since joules measured in seconds, then possible that need 10^10 seconds, but actualy koeficient k can be smaller. So possible, that need very much time for deaceleration and this energy radiation is very small. So my claim is that any particle at any speed radiating waves until loosing it speed and stoping. But for this need very much time. Sciencists don't sow this radiation, because it is too weak. And if electrons deacelereate very rapidly then they see it like gamma rays (realy?). So this like very small density of air friction for flying body. Body can fly very long almost without deacceleration and cracnks will not obtain it, because radiation is very weak compare with kinetic energy of particle. I would say this: radiation energy of particle untill it reaching v speed is ~0.5mv^2 /c^2, so about 10^17 times smaller than kinetic energy of particle. This is about age of earth in seconds. So still maxwell and over was wrong, because particles radiating waves even if they flying without acceleration!
excaza
QUOTE (DavidD+Jul 16 2008, 06:28 AM)
For bless of god, shut up! I know about what I talking!
Particles which moving with speed v radiating energy 0.5v^2 and thus moving slower and slower, but this is almost invisible. So supose that 0.5v^2=d. Then by accelerating particle to v speed it will radiated 0.5d^2 energy, but since d=0.5v^2, then to accelerate particle to v speed it will radiates 0.25v^4 energy.
I prove my smallest spheres theory!!! There is spheres in cosmos, which deacelerating particles and it is not related with particles charge, but it depends on particle size, but since probably all particles neutrons, portons, electrons and so on have almost the same size then they radiating the same energy or "friction" is the same.
Electromagnetic waves don't have any electric and magnetic properties, but is just exactly the same as air waves, they pushing electrons and then creating electricity potencial diference and then there going then vibrating electricity going to earth or just vibrating into capacitor...
Maxwell electrodynamic theory is also wrong!

edit: when particle flying at speed v, he radiates energy of 0.5v^2 'W' and to accelerate particle to v speed it will radiate 0.25v^4 'J'. 1 J=1 W*s. So for example flying 1 second at 10000 m/s speed particle radiating 0.5*10000^2=5*10^7 'J' energy. And accelerated particle to 10000 m/s will radiate 0.25*10000^4=2.5*10^15 'J' energy. Accelerated particle (from 0 m/s) to 100 m/s will radiate 0.25*100^4=2.5*10^7 'J', - twice less than flying at 10000 m/s speed one second.

*sigh* and again:

v^2 will not give you an energy

v^2 will not give you a distance

v^4 will not give you an energy

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dimensional_analysis
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