Volumetric Flow Of Pipe Branching Into 3?

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Mitie

16th April 2012 - 09:23 PM

Hi!

If i have an airduct with a fan producing a volumetric flow V0 with the following construction:

V0

|
|------> V1
|
|------> V2
|
v

V3

The friction of the airduct is known and the loss coefficient is 0. Also, the pressure before the fan is 1bar and so is the flow after V1,V2, and V3. The diameters and lengths of the duct sections are known and the density of the air is 1.2.

Anyone know how V1, V2 and V3 can be calculated?

Ps. Sorry for the crappy english =)

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