Er..
C'mon Ivars .. this is your thread..
And I agree!
Ivars, ar yuo dooing upseide dawn math?
The equation doesn't make sense, really:
QUOTE
Proposition : If f (x) 2k+1 derivative does not vanish on [a,b], then the graphs of the polynomials T (f, x) of order 2 k are two by two disjoint.
I don't know what a "vanishing point" would be, but there is only one case that I know of that sort of, kind of, tangentially, like... uh, let me start again:
I consider 2k a whole thing --a complete entity in itself-- and not as a segment of any other equation.
Therefore, 2k+1 is redundant: I just know a single case where (2k) equals (k+1 times 2), and I did show it to you. I truly have no idea what you mean when you say (2k+1) because it literally squares the number of answers you can get that are right (or wrong)
You want to have 2k *plus one*?
FOINE.
You can't have them.
Not when both are content. If you want to have it, 2k has to be address, and that sweet little 1

- must necessarily be a *content* which may or may not be at the address... and if it is not there, then it's a certainty that it is visiting the neighbors(!!!) because of a moment...
I truly have no idea where this is going. I only know of one case of 2k = k+1, and it has nothing to do with anything you or anyone thinks it means, but they are redundant together. And I do know that the "2k" in one translation is already equal to the presence of a "2" in the logarithmic *root** of the other, and simultaneously equal to "plus one" in another because they are equival...
What is "vanishing point" supposed to mean in this case?
Soooooooo...
Iiiiiii mmmeeeaaaaaaannnnnnn...
Yooouuuu kknnnoooowwwww....
?????
Sorry, this makes no sense!
But methinks
1--RP got it right talking about "∈". Something can't both belong and not belong to an address.
2--Confused2 says:
QUOTE (->
| QUOTE |
| Proposition : If f (x) 2k+1 derivative does not vanish on [a,b], then the graphs of the polynomials T (f, x) of order 2 k are two by two disjoint. |
I don't know what a "vanishing point" would be, but there is only one case that I know of that sort of, kind of, tangentially, like... uh, let me start again:
I consider 2k a whole thing --a complete entity in itself-- and not as a segment of any other equation.
Therefore, 2k+1 is redundant: I just know a single case where (2k) equals (k+1 times 2), and I did show it to you. I truly have no idea what you mean when you say (2k+1) because it literally squares the number of answers you can get that are right (or wrong)
You want to have 2k *plus one*?
FOINE.
You can't have them.
Not when both are content. If you want to have it, 2k has to be address, and that sweet little 1

- must necessarily be a *content* which may or may not be at the address... and if it is not there, then it's a certainty that it is visiting the neighbors(!!!) because of a moment...
I truly have no idea where this is going. I only know of one case of 2k = k+1, and it has nothing to do with anything you or anyone thinks it means, but they are redundant together. And I do know that the "2k" in one translation is already equal to the presence of a "2" in the logarithmic *root** of the other, and simultaneously equal to "plus one" in another because they are equival...
What is "vanishing point" supposed to mean in this case?
Soooooooo...
Iiiiiii mmmeeeaaaaaaannnnnnn...
Yooouuuu kknnnoooowwwww....
?????
Sorry, this makes no sense!
But methinks
1--RP got it right talking about "∈". Something can't both belong and not belong to an address.
2--Confused2 says:
1/ x0 = 0
2/ x0 + x1 + x2 = 0,
3/ 3x0 − 4x1 + 5x2 = 0
because he can't make a multiplication by zero and differentiate between the content and the address. The content has moved, it's just not where he thinks it is. The result of C2's equation is only zero if you don't know where the effort spent executing the equation -that is, the energy spent- went.
I don't know where it went, I just know it's there!
Sorry, folks. Now you know the reason I stopped commenting. I can't make head or tails of what is being said. C2's empty-space-filled-with-0's should be moving and jumping about, and... it's not.
bukh
11th April 2009 - 05:55 PM
Hi
I may be totally wrong, and perhaps also out of context. But perhaps Ivars tried to express how matter can form out from "time-flow", and therefore get the math opposite.
Or put differently, it is not possible to calculate math bottom-up, math is always upside down, whereas physics normally is bottom up.
Physics is the real McCoy, and math is a discipline useful to mimic physics, but only and always as approximations.
Physical world is based upon how smallest dimension-objects scale-wise arrange themselves in more and more complex shapes - and in a dynamic cinematographic fashion. This implicates that it is not possible to ever identify the smallest - never to know the origin of what we measure and perceive. Physics will always be with hidden variables, and physics will always be in need of renormalization in order to be calculable.
Mathematics on the other hand can never be calculated out from smallest - because smallest will always be hidden in a lower scale, will always be hidden as zero - with no information. And nothing can be calculated out from zero. On the other hand - it is always possible to calculate from upside down, and calculus is about how numbers are being made more and more accurate - but it is not possible to create any kind of starting conditions and then calculate anything meaningful up-wards so to speak.
Beer w/Straw
12th April 2009 - 05:55 PM
Do you even have a clue as to anything you just said? Are you arguing only on a presumption of anothers disposition? Don't you ever shut up?
bukh
12th April 2009 - 07:14 PM
Bw/S
"Are you arguing only on a presumption of anothers disposition"
Yes - and ?
You are welcome to comment on the issue - !
"Don't you ever shut up?" !
(anothers being spelled an others - I think)
Beer w/Straw
12th April 2009 - 07:36 PM
QUOTE (bukh+Apr 12 2009, 07:14 PM)
Bw/S
"Are you arguing only on a presumption of anothers disposition"
Yes - and ?
You are welcome to comment on the issue - !
"Don't you ever shut up?" !
(anothers being spelled an others - I think)
Who's disposition are you commenting on - Ivars, Euler, who? Maybe you don't exactly know what you wrote because you can't decide who you're replying too. So as long as you write nonsense, you're safe. Good show!
bukh
12th April 2009 - 08:14 PM
BwS
Hopefully it is commenting on both -
And BTW - I think it is quite common - yeah perhaps the most common - that one comment on an others disposition.
Of course with the exception of those persons who do not argue - but just spout some hateful words out in the blue.
Beer w/Straw
12th April 2009 - 09:13 PM
QUOTE (bukh+Apr 12 2009, 08:14 PM)
Hopefully it is commenting on both -
That's especially nice. I see you made a very special post that addresses the finer points in each.
Granouille
12th April 2009 - 09:49 PM

Well said!
bukh
13th April 2009 - 09:34 AM
BwS and Granouille
Thanks - very much - always nice to receive such positive response -
Beer w/Straw
13th April 2009 - 03:27 PM
QUOTE (bukh+Apr 13 2009, 09:34 AM)
BwS and Granouille
Thanks - very much - always nice to receive such positive response -
Always nice to see total nonsense BS and then see the poster whine when it gets treated as such.
rpenner
13th April 2009 - 08:17 PM
QUOTE (Confused2+Apr 10 2009, 04:35 PM)
http://people.maths.ox.ac.uk/~hitchin/hitc...ve_geometry.pdfExercise:-
1. Let U1, U2 and U3 be the 2-dimensional vector subspaces of R3 defined by
x0 = 0, x0 + x1 + x2 = 0, 3x0 − 4x1 + 5x2 = 0 respectively. Find the vertices of the “triangle” in P²( R) whose sides are the projective lines P(U1), P(U2), P(U3).
Ok. This is very easy. A point in P²( R) is of the the form (x0, x1, x2) = (λp0, λp1, λp2) which is the equation of a line in R³ which pases through the orgin. Now we could just write this point as (p0, p1, p2) but the problem is that is the same line (and therefore the same point) as (−2p0, −2p1, −2p2). So we normalize, so that the leading non-zero term is 1. So if p0 ≠ 0, we write the point in P²( R) as [1, p1/p0, p2/p0] and if p0 = 0 and p1 ≠ 0, we write [0, 1, p2/p1] and if p0 = 0 and p1 = 0, we write [0, 0, 1].
Naturally (?) a plane through the origin in R³ corresponds to a line in P²( R) . And an intesection of planes through the origin is a line through the origin in R³, and so a point in P²( R).
So the three points (as I suggested above) are:
P(U1∩U2)
x0 = 0 and x0 + x1 + x2 = 0
⇒ x0 = 0 and x1 = λ and x2 = −λ
⇒ P(U1∩U2) = [0, 1, −1]
P(U1∩U3)
x0 = 0 and 3x0 − 4x1 + 5x2 = 0
⇒ x0 = 0 and x1 = λ and x2 = (4/5)λ
⇒ P(U1∩U3) = [0, 1, 4/5]
P(U2∩U3)
x0 + x1 + x2 = 0 and 3x0 − 4x1 + 5x2 = 0
⇒ x0 = λ and x1 + x2 = −λ and −4x1 + 5x2 = −3λ
⇒ x0 = λ and −9x1 = 2λ and 9x2 = −7λ
⇒ P(U2∩U3) = [1, −2/9, −7/9]
And if you understand the definitions, the first two points you can simply write down from calculations in your head.
Ivars
14th April 2009 - 06:36 PM
Hi guys,
Excuse me I took a computer vacation but only for 5 days. Happy to see thread is busy!
Euler
14th April 2009 - 11:28 PM
It's weird: given Ivars' talk of projective geometry, over the past 8 months, I fail to see any posts on projective geometry from him. In fact, the only posts he's given in this thread have indicated his complete misunderstanding of some basic results in elementary mathematics.
It's almost as if Ivars wants to make people believe he knows and understands more than he does. Surely only a complete idiot would do that?
Ivars
15th April 2009 - 07:48 AM
QUOTE (rpenner+Apr 13 2009, 08:17 PM)
Hi rpenner,
This was most instructive . If only some of the other pro's here would sometimes really DO some math and use their finite lives to help people who ask questions.
I will try to replay Your calculation reasoning to see if I have understood them correctly and then ask a confusing ( for me) question:
QUOTE
Ok. This is very easy. A point in P²( R) is of the the form (x0, x1, x2) = (λp0, λp1, λp2) which is the equation of a line in R³ which pases through the orgin
So you replace real projective plane P²( R) with Real 3D space of projective coordinates R³ and the set of all points in P²( R) is then the set equivalent to all lines through origin in such space R³.
QUOTE (->
| QUOTE |
| Ok. This is very easy. A point in P²( R) is of the the form (x0, x1, x2) = (λp0, λp1, λp2) which is the equation of a line in R³ which pases through the orgin |
So you replace real projective plane P²( R) with Real 3D space of projective coordinates R³ and the set of all points in P²( R) is then the set equivalent to all lines through origin in such space R³.
Now we could just write this point as (p0, p1, p2) but the problem is that is the same line (and therefore the same point) as (−2p0, −2p1, −2p2). So we normalize, so that the leading non-zero term is 1. So if p0 ≠ 0, we write the point in P²( R) as [1, p1/p0, p2/p0] and if p0 = 0 and p1 ≠ 0, we write [0, 1, p2/p1] and if p0 = 0 and p1 = 0, we write [0, 0, 1].
So here You introduce homogeneous coordinates by "normalizing" the first projective coordinate to be =1 = p0/p0, and consequently , others p1/p0, p2/p0.
if p0=0 and p1≠0 we get p1/p0=oo or line with infinite slope in R³ in homogeneous coordinates . In non-normalized coordinates in , that would be any line through origin lying in a plane perpendicular to the relevant coordinate axis in R³ p0. With p1 taking all real values we get a set of such lines in R³ - a plane consisting of pencil of lines- which corresponds to set of points in P²( R) - a line in P²( R) , so called line at "infinity"?
If p0 =0 and p1 = 0, slope p1/p0=0/0 is indefinite and correspond to a single line through origin in R³ which is basically the coordinate axis p2 itself and lines paralel to it in R³ as p1, p0 = 0 .
This would be presented as a single point in P²( R) - point at infinity - where all lines parallel to p2 in R3 meet?
QUOTE
Naturally (?) a plane through the origin in R³ corresponds to a line in P²( R) . And an intesection of planes through the origin is a line through the origin in R³, and so a point in P²( R).
This is true as long as Real projective plane is considered as certain 2 dimensional combination of numbers from space R³.
QUOTE (->
| QUOTE |
| Naturally (?) a plane through the origin in R³ corresponds to a line in P²( R) . And an intesection of planes through the origin is a line through the origin in R³, and so a point in P²( R). |
This is true as long as Real projective plane is considered as certain 2 dimensional combination of numbers from space R³.
So the three points (as I suggested above) are:
P(U1∩U2)
x0 = 0 and x0 + x1 + x2 = 0
⇒ x0 = 0 and x1 = λ and x2 = −λ
⇒ P(U1∩U2) = [0, 1, −1]
P(U1∩U3)
x0 = 0 and 3x0 − 4x1 + 5x2 = 0
⇒ x0 = 0 and x1 = λ and x2 = (4/5)λ
⇒ P(U1∩U3) = [0, 1, 4/5]
P(U2∩U3)
x0 + x1 + x2 = 0 and 3x0 − 4x1 + 5x2 = 0
⇒ x0 = λ and x1 + x2 = −λ and −4x1 + 5x2 = −3λ
⇒ x0 = λ and −9x1 = 2λ and 9x2 = −7λ
⇒ P(U2∩U3) = [1, −2/9, −7/9]
Here You use the equations of Planes through origin in R³ corresponding to the given lines of "triangle" in P²( R) and find their meets using the coordinate information about lines forming the triangle.
My confusing question was: Klein, Cayley, Staudt ( I hope I am not wrong here) considered Real projective spaces as subcases of Complex projective spaces, not vice versa as construction with upping the dimensions by 1 may suggest.
If we would have a similar question with "triangle" in CP², would we than need 4 dimensional Real space to represent it and 6 dimensional Real space where to work the things out, both endowed with complex structure which probably has not much effect as long as there are no differential relations involved?
6 dimensional Real Space is also the space of line coordinates in Plucker sense ( x,y,z, X, Y, Z) which gives all lines in R³ as functions of their point (with fixed orientation of coordinate system, all points along line) and line (with fixed origin, all lines through the point) coordinates.
Line GeometryIs there any relation between points in CP² and R^6 of Plucker line coordinates (even if all Plucker coordinates are kept real) ? In projective space P^5 with homogeneous coordinates, Plucker coordinates has 5 independent parameters, so in a sense, such Real Space is also the space of point/line coordinates in Plucker sense R^6 has a structure (constraint) as well.
The Plucker approach and served as one of foundations to the theory of screws - I think so at least, not sure. So could Complex structure on R^6 be helical as well and how is that represented ? Twist of I ( Penrose Road to Reality , Berry)?
Screw Theory
rpenner
15th April 2009 - 03:08 PM
Since you are still dividing by zero, I have to believe that further discussion is pointless. Please read through the material and solve the next two problems.
H2O
16th April 2009 - 01:17 AM
Wow, nasty. I don't know anything on this subject but I did have to comment on something I read...
QUOTE
You mean you want to do as little work as possible and have someone hand you information on a plate. If you genuinely want to learn about projective geometry, you will have to do some reading (like everyone else)
With the project I'm working on most of what I know is information I have read. However some of the best increases in my own understanding of what I have read came from the pictures that some of the text had. The reason being is that there are different ways people learn. To enlist I had to take an aptitude test and scored highest in visual/spacial. I learn the best by hands on and seeing picture/diagrams. When I do read something I need to know it enough already to be able to picture it in my head or else I may as well being reading another language. The problem is that if I know it enough to visualize it then reading doesn't really give me much more on the subject except maybe a bit more context.
It's not a matter of being lazy or wanting things spoon fed, it's just a matter of seeking out sources that best match ones learning ability. There is also nothing wrong with seeking out institutions, either they be online or not, to get taught the material by someone who is knowledgeable in the subject. Anyone here with a degree should be the last person to think that seeking out an institution or source material (in text or video format) is called being spoon fed.
Now I don't know the history of some of you and by some of the feed back I have read, I really don't want to know. What I do know is what I see here and what I see here is someone who really does want to know this subject. The only person here that actually showed maturity and respect by responding constructively is rpenner. Good on him.
Ivars
16th April 2009 - 05:47 AM
QUOTE (H2O+Apr 16 2009, 01:17 AM)
However some of the best increases in my own understanding of what I have read came from the pictures that some of the text had. The reason being is that there are different ways people learn. To enlist I had to take an aptitude test and scored highest in visual/spacial. I learn the best by hands on and seeing picture/diagrams. When I do read something I need to know it enough already to be able to picture it in my head or else I may as well being reading another language. The problem is that if I know it enough to visualize it then reading doesn't really give me much more on the subject except maybe a bit more context.
It's not a matter of being lazy or wanting things spoon fed, it's just a matter of seeking out sources that best match ones learning ability. There is also nothing wrong with seeking out institutions, either they be online or not, to get taught the material by someone who is knowledgeable in the subject. Anyone here with a degree should be the last person to think that seeking out an institution or source material (in text or video format) is called being spoon fed.
Hi H20
You have opened a can of worms. Poor You. Wait to see what happens with your feedback.
But thanks anyway! It is nice to see a decent person who understand the differences in learning styles and corresponding needs.

.
Even Felix Klein had all the possible geometric constructions modeled in sculptural figures to get better understanding and for students.
By the way, so far NO ONE has given me even a hint where to look for VIDEO lectures.
I would like to add that I am also interested in Differential Geometry video lectures, Frenet moving frame, clasification of curves by curvature/torsion as functions of arclentgh, application of intrinsic curve parameters , especially Projective Differential geometry, differential and integral projective invariants of curves.
Things evolve....to keep head clear from I would love to get rid of all coordinate representations of curves/surfaces etc are they just complicate the visual picture.
After having got rid of coordinates, I would love to know how the curve defined by intrinsic parameters behave in fractional dimensional spaces, perhaps projective when dimensionality of space is made a parameter.
Ivars
16th April 2009 - 06:16 AM
QUOTE (rpenner+Apr 15 2009, 03:08 PM)
Since you are still dividing by zero, I have to believe that further discussion is pointless. Please read through the material and solve the next two problems.
Hi rpenner
Symbolic division by zero in a context of extended Real Number Line ( or extended complex plane) is not a crime in itself. Perhaps we should not start this discussion here.
Division by zero WeinsteinQUOTE
There are, however, contexts in which division by zero can be considered as defined. For example, division by zero z/0 for z in C^* not 0 in the extended complex plane C-* is defined to be a quantity known as complex infinity. This definition expresses the fact that, for z not , lim_(w->0) z/w=infty (i.e., complex infinity). However, even though the formal statement 1/0=infty is permitted in C-*, note that this does not mean that 1=0·infty. Zero does not have a multiplicative inverse under any circumstances.
Division by zero WikipediaQUOTE (->
| QUOTE |
| There are, however, contexts in which division by zero can be considered as defined. For example, division by zero z/0 for z in C^* not 0 in the extended complex plane C-* is defined to be a quantity known as complex infinity. This definition expresses the fact that, for z not , lim_(w->0) z/w=infty (i.e., complex infinity). However, even though the formal statement 1/0=infty is permitted in C-*, note that this does not mean that 1=0·infty. Zero does not have a multiplicative inverse under any circumstances. |
Division by zero WikipediaReal projective line
The set R and oo is the real projective line, which is a one-point compactification of the real line. Here oo means an unsigned infinity, an infinite quantity which is neither positive nor negative. This quantity satisfies -oo = oo which is necessary in this context. In this structure, a/0 = oo can be defined for nonzero a, and a/oo = 0.
It is the natural way to view the range of the tangent and cotangent functions of trigonometry: tan(x) approaches the single point at infinity as x approaches either +\pi/2 or -pi/2 from either direction.This definition leads to many interesting results. However, the resulting algebraic structure is not a field, and should not be expected to behave like one. For example, oo + oo has no meaning in the projective line.
As to calculations, I am not so keen on particular results. Life is finite. I am more interested what happens if we move the origin in R^3 - what would happen with the corresponding PR^2? To me it seems that we will have to move the point at infinity which is actually not infinity in PR^2 since there is no distance in PR^2 ( the idea of point at infinity comes from affine representation of Projective space).
So it is better called ideal point, and the movement of this ideal point would then correspond to movement of origin of R^3 . When origin in R^3 traces out a curve in 3D space, the ideal point in RP^2 performs what movement? If origin traces a surface in R^3? If origin moves so that it fills volume in R^3?
If speed of movement of point particle is defined in R^3 as derivative of 2 vectors that are infinitesimally moved along trajectory (which means the space R^3 has to have affine connection) to perform vector difference operation, what is the projective RP^2 analogue of this operation of vector differentiation in R^3?
Euler
16th April 2009 - 09:01 AM
QUOTE (Ivars+Apr 16 2009, 05:47 AM)
Hi H20
You have opened a can of worms. Poor You. Wait to see what happens with your feedback.
But thanks anyway! It is nice to see a decent person who understand the differences in learning styles and corresponding needs.

.
Even Felix Klein had all the possible geometric constructions modeled in sculptural figures to get better understanding and for students.
By the way, so far NO ONE has given me even a hint where to look for VIDEO lectures.
I would like to add that I am also interested in Differential Geometry video lectures, Frenet moving frame, clasification of curves by curvature/torsion as functions of arclentgh, application of intrinsic curve parameters , especially Projective Differential geometry, differential and integral projective invariants of curves.
Things evolve....to keep head clear from I would love to get rid of all coordinate representations of curves/surfaces etc are they just complicate the visual picture.
After having got rid of coordinates, I would love to know how the curve defined by intrinsic parameters behave in fractional dimensional spaces, perhaps projective when dimensionality of space is made a parameter.
As you've aptly demonstrated in this thread, you're not in the least bit interested in learning. You are all talk. In addition, you're dishonest.
Over 8 months ago, you told us all you were going to learn about projective geometry and you were really interested in it. I said you wouldn't. I said you were all talk. And here we are, and you've demonstrated to us, once again, that you're all talk.
Let's see how you get on with your new quest: learning differential geometry. Come on, prove me wrong, actually learn some differential geometry.
Ivars
16th April 2009 - 02:58 PM
QUOTE (Euler+Apr 16 2009, 09:01 AM)
Let's see how you get on with your new quest: learning differential geometry. Come on, prove me wrong, actually learn some differential geometry.
Euler
17th April 2009 - 09:00 AM
QUOTE (Ivars+Apr 16 2009, 02:58 PM)
Yes, probably results will again be dismal since I started with last works of Wilczynski.
But if anyone is interested, here are few links not so easy to find:
Differential properties of functions of complex variable which are invariant under linear transformations part 1Part 2Interpretation of the simplest projective integral invariantNone of those links have
anything to do with differential geometry.
For those who are
actually interested in learning some differential geometry, here are some excellent notes:
http://www.dpmms.cam.ac.uk/~md384/snmeiwseis.pdf
Ivars
17th April 2009 - 04:54 PM
QUOTE (Euler+Apr 17 2009, 09:00 AM)
None of those links have
anything to do with differential geometry.
For those who are
actually interested in learning some differential geometry, here are some excellent notes:
http://www.dpmms.cam.ac.uk/~md384/snmeiwseis.pdf No doubt about that, but
QUOTE
clasification of curves by curvature/torsion as functions of arclentgh, application of intrinsic curve parameters , especially Projective Differential geometry, differential and integral projective invariants of curves.
So books by Wilczynski, Lane called "Projective differential geometry..." and this article seems good enough to start with:
ON DIFFERENTIAL INVARIANTS OF PLANAR CURVES AND RECOGNIZING PARTIALLY OCCLUDED PLANAR SHAPESAt least You do not need all the terrible abstract notions of modern math at the beginning.
AlphaNumeric
18th April 2009 - 08:59 AM
Ivars, you are clearly just typing in words like 'differential geometry, curves, planes' into Google and then providing us with links to some of the longer titled ones. If you were serious about learning differnential geometry, you'd get ahold of some 'introduction to differential geometry' book (I think Nakahara is a great book but needs undergrad knowledge) and use that, or a set of lecture notes.
Trying to learn maths from published papers is just stupid, because when writing papers authors assume a lot of assumed knowledge, they aren't making it readable to layman, they are trying to transmit new ideas and information to people in their area in as effecient a way as possible.
QUOTE
At least You do not need all the terrible abstract notions of modern math at the beginning.
This is just a pathetic cop out. If someone wanted to learn electromagnetism its a billion times easier to learn some basic mathematical methods and then use vector notations or differential forms than to just open Maxwell's original paper and read that, which doesn't have any of the very elegant and powerful (ie not a little abstract) notation used in modern maths.
Spending a month reading about the notation of modern maths (which differential geometry uses a ton of, it's got a lot of recent developments) saves a year in banging your head against intractable notation.
But that would only matter to you if you weren't lying about learning some maths.
Euler
18th April 2009 - 09:19 AM
QUOTE (Ivars+Apr 17 2009, 04:54 PM)
ON DIFFERENTIAL INVARIANTS OF PLANAR CURVES AND RECOGNIZING PARTIALLY OCCLUDED PLANAR SHAPESAt least You do not need all the terrible abstract notions of modern math at the beginning.
Strike 2. That's a (unremarkable) paper on invariants of curves under rigid motions. This is not differential geometry. I've given you some notes - if you're serious about learning you'll go through them. Of course, we all know you wont, because as we've witnessed, you're all talk.
Empress Palpatine
19th April 2009 - 11:13 PM
QUOTE (Ivars+Apr 7 2009, 02:01 PM)
Strongly recommended:
Dimensions Movie You can watch the movie online or download it . Beautiful pictures and explanations, from simple to quite advanced.
That was an awesome movie. Great visuals and can be even enjoyed by people who are not math experts.
It is good at giving the non-expert an idea how they can come up with this stuff.
AlexG
20th April 2009 - 01:41 AM
QUOTE (Cusa+Apr 19 2009, 06:22 PM)
Why do things shrink as they move into distance?
I believe this is a question of dimensionality and relativity.
This is like watching stupid develop right before your eyes.
Ivars
20th April 2009 - 07:32 AM
Hi AN, Euler, et al,
I know focusing on projective transformations is limiting, but focusing on metric is even more so. The reason I think projective differential and integral invariants are important is that we see, observe the world projectively- and that is why computer vision article is not so dumb- it has picked up where mathematicians had left the topic almost 100 years ago ( Halphen, Wilczynsky, Lane, Forsyth, Salmon, Cayley, Klein, Lie etc) .
Since physics work with observations, I bet heavily the theories that are true up to observation depend on projective properties of spaces - and that is well known ( CP2 in quantum mechanics) .
By the way, projective curvature of curves is invariant to projective transformations, and when it is constant, in plane, we end up with so called anharmonic curves or Lie_Klein W curves. These are curves that transform onto itself via projective transformations of space.
Thanks to all that has watched Dimensions movie. That should be revisited after some reading:)
Also to rpenner: the fundamental triangle of projective space is just a special case of cubic ( having 3 inflection points, in general) so TRIANGLE itself is just a special case of cubic with vertexes at inflection points. Fundamental tetrahedron in projective space is a special case of quartic, having in general 4 inflection points.
I find this type of generalization very useful since it takes away the special role polygons have in elementary Euclidean geometry. They are just sub cases of more general concepts. I find it easier to move from general to particular. [Moderator: There are a large number of words where the poster has failed to comprehend. It's really hard for me to understand what the poster hopes to gain, since I have not seen him complete the remaining problems on the self-contained PDF tutorial.]
According to Gauss-Bonnet theorem, there is no difference between Euler characteristic of a triangle and cubic, so topologically they are equivalent. In this sense, projective geometry plus Gauss Bonnet theorem seems to be a good tool to study topology via curves and surfaces not via abstract symbols....At least for dimensions one can visualize.
Since 4D objects may be recognized by there projection to 3D, it should be possible to develop some intuition in that direction as movies suggested. For example, what 4D curves are creating anharmonic curves as their projection on 3D? What 3D surfaces are creating 2D anharmonic curves via usual perspective projection we use in seing? What type of curves (functions) remain invariant via projection from infinite dimensional projective space to 2D?
Ivars
Euler
20th April 2009 - 08:40 AM
Classic Ivars post - many words, but absolutely no substance. Now how far have you got with those differential geometry notes? Same as all the others? Not done anything?
Come on, prove to us all there's more to you than just talk. Let's go through the first couple of pages of the notes I've given you. That's just two pages!
AlphaNumeric
20th April 2009 - 10:12 AM
QUOTE (Ivars+Apr 20 2009, 08:32 AM)
know focusing on projective transformations is limiting, but focusing on metric is even more so.
Projective geometry is not 'limiting' and the properties of a metric space a
huge, they cover all of Riemannian geometry. Entire libraries can be filled on just one of those topics! You really haven't a clue.
QUOTE (Ivars+Apr 20 2009, 08:32 AM)
The reason I think projective differential and integral invariants are important is that we see, observe the world projectively- and that is why computer vision article is not so dumb- it has picked up where mathematicians had left the topic almost 100 years ago ( Halphen, Wilczynsky, Lane, Forsyth, Salmon, Cayley, Klein, Lie etc) .
Oh look, Ivars Wiki'd for mathematicians whose names appear in an article on projective geometry.
QUOTE (Ivars+Apr 20 2009, 08:32 AM)
Since physics work with observations, I bet heavily the theories that are true up to observation depend on projective properties of spaces - and that is well known ( CP2 in quantum mechanics) .
Given you know neither the maths or the physics and you can't do any mathematics of CP2, I don't think you're in a position to be making predictions.
QUOTE (Ivars+Apr 20 2009, 08:32 AM)
By the way, projective curvature of curves is invariant to projective transformations, and when it is constant, in plane, we end up with so called anharmonic curves or Lie_Klein W curves. These are curves that transform onto itself via projective transformations of space.
This is so obviously lifted from a website it's painful. You don't even bother with a half arsed segway, you just plonk in some soundbite on projective geometry your Googling got you.
QUOTE (Ivars+Apr 20 2009, 08:32 AM)
Also to rpenner: the fundamental triangle of projective space is just a special case of cubic ( having 3 inflection points, in general) so TRIANGLE itself is just a special case of cubic with vertexes at inflection points. Fundamental tetrahedron in projective space is a special case of quartic, having in general 4 inflection points.
I find this type of generalization very useful since it takes away the special role polygons have in elementary Euclidean geometry. They are just sub cases of more general concepts. I find it easier to move from general to particular.
According to Gauss-Bonnet theorem, there is no difference between Euler characteristic of a triangle and cubic, so topologically they are equivalent. In this sense, projective geometry plus Gauss Bonnet theorem seems to be a good tool to study topology via curves and surfaces not via abstract symbols....At least for dimensions one can visualize.
Since 4D objects may be recognized by there projection to 3D, it should be possible to develop some intuition in that direction as movies suggested. For example, what 4D curves are creating anharmonic curves as their projection on 3D? What 3D surfaces are creating 2D anharmonic curves via usual perspective projection we use in seing? What type of curves (functions) remain invariant via projection from infinite dimensional projective space to 2D?
And more vacuous copy and pasting. Are you that pathetic you have to lie to people you know will see through you. Euler and I both teach and mark undergraduates and it doesn't take long before you develop the ability to see whose copied and whose not. You're so obviously mindlessly parroting websites its pathetic.
Ivars
20th April 2009 - 08:30 PM
QUOTE (AlphaNumeric+Apr 20 2009, 10:12 AM)
Oh look, Ivars Wiki'd for mathematicians whose names appear in an article on projective geometry.
Given you know neither the maths or the physics and you can't do any mathematics of CP2, I don't think you're in a position to be making predictions.
The only 2 I have not read yet in original is Halphen since I can not find his thesis and following works in English, and Lie since I am not ready yet. Of course, there is still much much more. Have You, by the way?
As to copy paste, I am glad You find my thoughts so well encapsulating the ideas that You take them for copy pastes.
As to CP2, I said projective space is used because we talk about observables,and mentioned the fact CP2 is behind quantum physics is because I read about it in R.Penroses Road to reality where he explicitly states that, I did not say that I know the details of its workings in physics.
As to Projective/metric restrictiveness, I was only mentioning the fact that metric geometry makes a 7 parameter subgroup of 15 parameter projective group and thus is more restrictive or less general ( in 3D case). That does not mean there can not be things in metric geometry that does not hold under projective transformations but are complex in itself, as You correctly state.
AlphaNumeric
20th April 2009 - 08:54 PM
QUOTE (Ivars+Apr 20 2009, 09:30 PM)
The only 2 I have not read yet in original is Halphen since I can not find his thesis and following works in English, and Lie since I am not ready yet. Of course, there is still much much more. Have You, by the way?
No, I haven't read the thesis of Halphen or anyone else you mention. Infact, I would say I've only ever read the thesis of two people, both of whom are in my area of work and who are less than 30 years of age. In the vast majority of cases reading a PhD thesis which is older than say 20 years is likely to be less illuminating than reading more recent publications or books. Why? Because in those 20 years more powerful mathematical tools will be developed to streamline methods and more work will have been done.
For instance, the original publication of Maxwell's which contain his electromagnetic equations are horrible to read. They didn't have any of the VERY useful notations like vector calculus or differential forms in his day, they did everything using stuff like quaternions or component by component. Reading Maxwell's original paper is only useful for historical perspective. Reading a book on vector calculus and differential forms is infinitely more useful.
I haven't read any work by Lie but I've read books on Lie algebras written by other people since Lie. Infact, I've got one in arms reach. I've also read several lecture courses on them. And, unlike you, I've actually done questions relating to Lie algebras and Lie groups. Unlike you, I make sure I can do the maths. Unlike you I have been tested by sitting exams on it and unlike you they didn't think blurting out BS copy and paste paragraphs is showing understanding.
You've read a number of peoples thesis but I bet you can't do a single question Euler or I could ask you on that area. You've shown in this thread you will avoid doing anything which requires a working understanding, now jumping from projective geometry to differential geometry. And your grasp of what differential geometry is is so poor you Googled for some papers and then linked us to the results, which were nothing to do with differential geometry! Because rather than get a book entitled "An Introduction to Differential Geometry" and work through it, you prefer to delude yourself into thinking what you're doing at the moment is of any use at all.
I've spent 2 hours this evening (and 10 yesterday) doing a bunch of differential geometry on projective spaces because it relates to my work. I don't use Penrose's 'Road to Reality' as a textbook, even though I own it, it's a 'oh, that's an interesting result' book. I don't read published papers from Gauss, Riemann, Lie or Cartan to learn how to describe Kahler moduli spaces, I use textbooks and about 100 A4 sheets of paper doing examples, working things through and calculating things until I've got a firm grasp of it. Neither Euler or myself or anyone reads a book on differential geometry and says "Yep, I can do that now" and can. Every single one of us goes through a ton of paper doing exercises, proving results, practising methods. I am confident that you have barely put pen to paper. In the last 8 months. I generally go through one of those 500 sheet packs every 5 to 10 days.
rpenner
20th April 2009 - 09:02 PM
prometheus
20th April 2009 - 10:31 PM
QUOTE (AlphaNumeric+Apr 20 2009, 08:54 PM)
I generally go through one of those 500 sheet packs every 5 to 10 days.
Do you print 2 pages per side, front and back?
Empress Palpatine
21st April 2009 - 03:30 AM
Alphanumeric and Euler, do you use computers and computer graphics software a lot? Those old time mathematicians could not do that (not even pocket calculators poor souls

) Has the computer made things possible that never were before in the world of math?
Ivars, that movie of dimensions had a lot of visual content. Are there any others?
Do mathematicians and math inspired artists displaying their works online?
I admit, I lean towards the art side of things. Do people who are actual mathematicians interested in how things look? Is it a driving desire to try to see these other dimensions and other visual results? When I was in school years ago back in the 1970's, math was rather dull because there wasn't much to see.
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