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CE1
Key points:
embedded spacetime manifold
simple Lagrangian
knots
forces
nearly no mathematical rigor




Purpose:

To summarize a few ideas and results associated with embedding the spacetime manifold.




Assumptions:

Let M be the spacetime manifold. As usual, M is 4-dimensional. However, here we will assume that M is embedded in a Minkowski 6-space with metric diag(1,-1,-1,-1,-1,-1). The metric on M is inherited from the Minkowski space. We assume that M has finite energy. There is a vector field A_v on M (the electromagnetic 4-potential). Let F^{ab} be the usual electromagnetism tensor and k a constant, then assume a Lagrangian density

L = k + F^{ab}F_{ab}




A few "results" (proofs/details/substance omitted for brevity):


Knots/particles:
M has finite energy therefore M has metric signature (1,3) everywhere except a set of measure zero. On that set of measure zero, M can have a degenerate metric. A manifold that is *everywhere* Lorentzian and has a causal structure cannot change topology.

R. P. Geroch, Topology in general relativity, Journal of Mathematical Physics 8 (1967) 782-786

However, the degenerate metric on M allows for a limited class of topology change. Because M is embedded in a co-dimension 2 space, M can be knotted. We assert those knots correspond to observed particles and have corresponding properties.

The elementary fermions have topology S¹xP². A finite energy embedding can produce 3 varieties of this topology that differ based on the way the S¹xP² is attached to M by connected sum. (wikipedia "connected sum" for details)


Electromagnetism:
If M is approximately flat on the small scale then the Lagrangian is equivalent to the electromagnetism Lagrangian of the Standard Model. Charge and spin result from particle topology.


Gravity:
In the vacuum, F^{ab}=0 and the Lagrangian density is L = k. The metric on M is inherited from the Minkowski space. The geometry of M is literally its shape. Optimizing the Lagrangian is equivalent to minimizing the volume of M. The knots can only be pulled so tight (quantum constraints) and are source terms for gravity. The Lagrangian L = k implies the Lagrangian of GR. (Minimizing volume implies minimizing the scalar curvature, R.)

Minimizing the volume of M in a Minkowski space implies waves. In co-dimension 2, a point p on M would move like this

at rest: (t, p1, p2, p3, 0, 0)
in motion: (t, p1, p2, p3, Bcos(t), Bsin(t)) or
in motion: (t, p1, p2, p3, Bcos(t), -Bsin(t))

with two possibilities for the direction of rotation. The Lagrangian would be optimized if all points are rotating in the same direction. This is spontaneous symmetry breaking.



Strong force:
Quarks are elementary fermions and are S¹xP². The topology S¹xP² can link. Linked S¹xP² form hadrons. The quarks cannot be separated because linking is a topological constraint; this is confinement. However, at close distances the links do not pull each other (i.e. no force is exerted) and this is asymptotic freedom.


Electroweak force:
Far from particles, the manifold is approximately flat. Close to particles (knots) the manifold is not flat. The Lorentzian transformation law for field energies depends whether the velocity of the transformation is in the manifold's tangent space at the point being considered. If it's in the tangent space, the field appears massless. If it's not in the tangent space, the field may appear to have mass. Therefore, close to particles the field may appear to have mass.



This has been a compromised attempt to achieve:
1. A preponderance of evidence
2. Mathematical rigor
3. Brevity

Hopefully each succeeded to a roughly equal degree. tongue.gif



More details, actual proofs, and results are available at
knotphysics.net

I'm happy to elaborate/discuss if there is any interest.

Finally, because I rarely get to use emoticons in physics:


blink.gif ohmy.gif laugh.gif

[Moderator: Suspended 3 days for abuse of the term 'rigor']
flyingbuttressman
Want to know the quickest way to remove all hope of credibility from a written document?

USE EMOTICONS!!
AlphaNumeric
NeoNo.1 sock puppet or someone else obsessed with terminology it seems they don't understand?
Trout
QUOTE (AlphaNumeric+Sep 2 2009, 08:38 AM)
NeoNo.1 sock puppet or someone else obsessed with terminology it seems they don't understand?

The return of Lui.
CE1

It seems one needs to accumulate credibility before introducing a lot of one's own ideas. In retrospect, this seems obvious.

Thank you for the responses. They helped to illuminate the lack-of-credibility problem.

wcelliott
http://www.newscientist.com/article/mg1912...-spacetime.html

You are made of space-time

All from nothing at all

So far the new theory reproduces only a few of the features of the standard model, such as the charge of the particles and their "handedness", a quantity that describes how a particle's quantum-mechanical spin relates to its direction of travel in space. Even so, Smolin is thrilled with the progress. "After 20 years, it is wonderful to finally make some connection to particle physics that isn't put in by hand," he says.

The correspondence between braids and particles suggests that more properties may be waiting to be derived from the theory. The most substantial achievement, Smolin says, would be to calculate the masses of the elementary particles from first principles. It is a hugely ambitious goal: predicting the masses and other fundamental constants of nature was something string theorists set out to do more than 20 years ago - and have now all but given up on.
IAMoraes
QUOTE (wcelliott+Sep 5 2009, 11:28 PM)
So far the new theory reproduces only a few of the features of the standard model, such as the charge of the particles and their "handedness", a quantity that describes how a particle's quantum-mechanical spin relates to its direction of travel in space. Even so, Smolin is thrilled with the progress

Smolin is probably not too much of a condescending idiot. If his model is right he should have more than "a few" features of the standard model just about jumping at him, but I suspect he is not looking far enough.

QUOTE
It seems one needs to accumulate credibility before introducing a lot of one's own ideas. In retrospect, this seems obvious.

Not at all, you just have to shave your legs just like stinkyflyingbutt --and don't forget deodorant like Trout does. (pretend you didn't notice his pathetic fixation on Lui)

QUOTE (->
QUOTE
It seems one needs to accumulate credibility before introducing a lot of one's own ideas. In retrospect, this seems obvious.

Not at all, you just have to shave your legs just like stinkyflyingbutt --and don't forget deodorant like Trout does. (pretend you didn't notice his pathetic fixation on Lui)

Let M be the spacetime manifold. As usual, M is 4-dimensional. However, here we will assume that M is embedded in a Minkowski 6-space with metric diag(1,-1,-1,-1,-1,-1).

That "metric" has got to go! Can't you try an emoticon?
AlphaNumeric
QUOTE (CE1+Sep 5 2009, 09:04 PM)
It seems one needs to accumulate credibility before introducing a lot of one's own ideas. In retrospect, this seems obvious.

Rather that you make a lot of bold claims and throw about a lot of mathematical concepts not commonly seen outside of a research level textbook but you utterly fail to actually do anytning other than state claims. Anyone versed enough in mathematics to know how to go about discussing topology changes in spaces whose metric is degenerate in a space of measure zero will have seen enough textbooks and papers in their time to know how to write a mathematical analysis of something, where proofs are clearly given. In the mathematics community papers and textbooks often are laid out as 'Theorem 1 : ....., Proof 1: ......, Corrollary 2 : ......, Proof 2 : ......". Its seen less in physics work but none-the-less the proof of any claim is an important, if not fundamental, part of any paper. Yet you seem to have utterly missed that.
CE1
AlphaNumeric, regarding your description of my post: you are absolutely correct.

The post consists of two things: a series of claims intended to stimulate interest and a collection of apologies for the fact that there is no other real content. I pulled a few interesting points out of 50 pages of original document. My impression was that I would lose the interest of the readers otherwise.

If you ever have interest in discussing, I would be delighted.

[Moderator: Banned 3 days for stalling. Instead of addressing the points, poster proposes to waste senior members' valuable time by talking about addressing the points. This is puffery. I am displeased.]
CE1
Key points:
Basic math on embedded manifolds
Lorentz transformations
general covariance
differentiation




Purpose:

To cover a few basic math principles for embedded manifolds. This may be review, but it will get used in later posts.



Assumptions:

As in the first post. M is a 4-manifold embedded in a Minkowski 6-space. The metric on M is inherited from the 6-space.



A few basic operations:


From time to time I discuss physics with people who have spent a lot of time with the assumptions of general relativity. Periodically, it helps to remind them that an embedded manifold can have a vector that is not in its tangent space, for example. Here's a quick discussion of some of the most common issues:


The Lorentz transformations are those transformations of the 6-space that preserve its metric. The group of transformations is O(1,5). For more specialized purposes this may be SO(1,5), or SO+(1,5), or whatever suits the purpose. If a transformation preserves the metric of the 6-space then it also preserves the metric on M.

Does general covariance still apply? Yes and no. M is a 4-manifold. One can use a coordinate chart on M. The metric corresponding to the coordinates follows in the same way as always. However, the 6-space coordinates are still important. In particular it is important that M cannot self-intersect. No coordinate chart on M can distinguish self-intersection. Gravity and electromagnetism turn out to be generally covariant. The strong force is definitely not generally covariant. The weak force is also not.

Differentiation can be done on M with ordinary partial derivatives, using the metric from the 6-space. The 6-space is flat and no parallel translation of tensors is necessary. Covariant differentiation with respect to the metric on M is still possible of course. If f is a scalar function on M then f^{,a} is a vector field in the tangent space to M. Using ordinary partial derivatives, one can differentiate every component of a tensor as if it were a scalar function on M. If T is a tensor on M then the derivative of T gives a new tensor T^{,a} (with the other indices suppressed). If v_a is a unit vector in the tangent space of M then T^{,a}v_a gives the rate of change of T in the direction of v_a. If v_a is perpendicular to the tangent space of M then T^{,a}v_a=0.

CE1
Key points:
A_ν vector potential
manifold topology implies field topology
field topology implies charge



Purpose:

To discuss briefly how manifold topology can affect field topology, thus producing charge.



Assumptions:

As in the first post. Elaborating on the A_ν field: we assume that A_ν is a continuous, differentiable vector field. Let x_ν be the coordinate in the Minkowski 6-space. If there is no electromagnetic field then A_ν = x_ν. This is different than the usual description where A_ν is constant (usually 0) if there is no field. The divergence of A_ν is assumed to be constant: ∂^ν A_ν = -2.

(More accurately, A_ν is differentiable if energy density is finite.)




A few "results" (we'll try to make things as complete as possible without diagrams and equation formatting):

We assumed that A_ν = x_ν if there is no field. The field tensor is F_{ab} = A_{b,a} - A_{a,b} and the Lagrangian is

L = k + F^{ab}F_{ab}

so we see that A_ν is related to the usual 4-potential. Let A_ν^{Maxwell} be the usual 4-potential. Then, on flat space, A_ν = A_ν^{Maxwell} + x_ν. But F^{ab} subtracts out the difference and the divergence condition ∂^ν A_ν = -2 incorporates the difference. So why insist on making it different? If A_ν is constant (e.g. 0) then manifold topology does not affect field topology. However, the conditions that A_ν -> x_ν at infinity and ∂^ν A_ν = -2 imply interaction between manifold topology and field topology.

P² is the real projective plane. To make a P² take a disc D and identify each point on the boundary with the point that is diametrically opposite. (To contrast, identifying every point on the boundary with a single point would make S² aka a sphere.)

R²#P² is the connected sum of R² and P². One can make this by making a P² and attaching to R² by connected sum. A slightly simpler method is just to remove a disc from R² and then identify each point on the boundary with the diametrically opposite point.

R²#S² is the connected sum of R² and S². One can make this by making a S² and attaching to R² by connected sum. A simpler method is to remove a disk from R² and then identifying each point on the boundary with a single point. A still simpler method is just to recognize that R²#S² is equal to R².

A_ν can be described as a mapping from M to some abstract manifold that has no physical significance. For example, if A_ν=x_ν then A_ν is clearly the identity mapping. We can use this description of A_ν as a convenient way to describe the topology of A_ν.

Assume for the moment that M is a 3-manifold (with metric signature (1,2)). Then the divergence condition becomes ∂^ν A_ν = -1. Let a spacelike slice of M be R²#P². Assume that A_ν, as a mapping, maps to R². Then the mapping A_ν maps a circle C on R²#P² to a single point on the abstract, non-physical manifold. Let c^μ be a tangent vector to C. Then A_{ν,μ}c^μ=0. But we assumed that ∂^ν A_ν = -1. If A_{ν,μ}c^μ=0 for c^μ in the tangent space of M, then A_ν must compensate. This makes A_{ν,μ}t^μ=0 for a timelike vector t^μ. Specifically t^μ is the velocity of the point on C.

If M is a 4-manifold then the divergence condition is ∂^ν A_ν = -2 and we use a S¹xP² instead of a P². The A_ν mapping takes a torus to a circle, the divergence condition implies a constraint, and A_{ν,μ}t^μ = 0 for a timelike vector t^μ again.

If A_ν were defined such that it is constant for no field, then A_{ν,μ}t^μ = 0 would be consistent with no field. However, we required that A_ν = x_ν for no field. Therefore A_{ν,μ}t^μ=0 implies that a timelike component of A_ν is not equal to x_ν. Over arbitrarily large times, the difference between A_ν and x_ν would become arbitrarily large.

This is a good place to introduce an interpretation of A_ν. Consider an elastic sheet with a coordinate grid drawn on it. One can change the geometry of the sheet by moving points perpendicular to their tangent space. One can also move the coordinate grid by moving points parallel to their tangent space. A_ν represents the displacement of points from rest. The displacement of M must preserve causal structure. Therefore, for a timelike vector t^ν, the level sets A_ν t^ν=constant must be spacelike slices. This prevents the difference between A_ν and x_ν from becoming arbitrarily large. When the slice A_ν t^ν=constant has a lightlike tangent vector, smoothness fails and the spacelike slice A_ν t^ν=constant has a cusp. There are two possibilities: A_0 > x_0 and A_0 < x_0. One of these is positive charge and the other is negative. The distinction may relate to symmetry breaking. Conservation of charge follows from the field equations.

If A_ν = x_ν then there is no electromagnetic field. If A_ν = x_ν on a S¹xP² then there is an elementary fermion with no electromagnetic field, which is true of neutrinos.

Using the geometry of S¹xP² and some quantum principles one can show that the field equilibrates at a unit charge. However, we don't have enough background for this yet.
IAMoraes
QUOTE (CE1+Sep 12 2009, 06:30 PM)
P² is the real projective plane. To make a P² take a disc D and identify each point on the boundary with the point that is diametrically opposite. (To contrast, identifying every point on the boundary with a single point would make S² aka a sphere.)

R²#P² is the connected sum of R² and P². One can make this by making a P² and attaching to R² by connected sum. A slightly simpler method is just to remove a disc from R² and then identify each point on the boundary with the diametrically opposite point.

The "scalar curvature" R (squared or not) can be "connectedly" added to P (squared or not)? How?

If you are describing P as the diametrically-opposite point AND you have a "scalar curvature" R to add to it, then you described a circle, intersected another circle onto it, looked sideways, and said that the distance is 2 times radius plus a deviation from the plane. Does that check?

Why wouldn't the angle of deviation be descriptively better then?!

Don't know anymore where I saw the drawing but there is a stable gravity ring around galactic nucleii. You just have to imagine that when the heavier-than-heavy black-hole is off-center there is a lighter-than-light point at the opposite point of the orbit, say, a spacial "recoil". That deviation from the galactic plane is what you are describing?

You are trying to add up weight and recoil as a basis for a subatomic particle model? I still don't see how that "connectedly" works for "double radius plus deviation" (Ok, I just discovered I was supposed to wiki "connected sum". Got it.)

QUOTE
If A_ν = x_ν then there is no electromagnetic field. If A_ν = x_ν on a S¹xP² then there is an elementary fermion with no electromagnetic field, which is true of neutrinos


Sorry, I don't really understand what you are saying about neutrinos. Even at such poor mathematical zoom level you are way past it and don't realize it. The knots are there and the points are there and both are the neutrino?

I thought it was just a subset of the points and their associated "circle" -unrelated to everything you already calculated- that made up the neutrino. All the points can't make up a neutrino because they already make up the whole nucleus!

(I am completely lost!)
Trout
QUOTE (CE1+Sep 12 2009, 10:30 PM)
Elaborating on the A_ν field: we assume that A_ν is a continuous, differentiable vector field. Let x_ν be the coordinate in the Minkowski 6-space. If there is no electromagnetic field then A_ν = x_ν.

Can you prove this? Let's see it.
AlphaNumeric
QUOTE (IAMoraes+Sep 13 2009, 07:54 AM)
(I am completely lost!)

But then 3rd grade mathematics is over your head so its hardly surprising something involving beyond high school maths is making you 'lost'.

QUOTE (Trout+Sep 13 2009, 07:54 AM)
Can you prove this? Let's see it.
It isn't true. The assuming of continuous derivatives etc is par for the course, tells you nothing new. The EM field being zero means F=0, so dA=0, so A_{a,b}-A_{b,a}=0. Yes, you can satisfy this by A_{a} = x_{a} but there's two issues with this. Firstly, it's a gauge transformation of 0, in that A -> A' = A+df, where f is a function on the space, gives physically equivalent results as F is unchanged, it's the entire point of gauge invariance. As such, if f = x_a x^a = |x|^2 you end up with his A_a being nothing but a gauge transformation away from being trivial. Secondly, knowing F you can only locally obtain the associated A, you're basically solving a differential equation which, if the topology of the space is non-trivial, you cannot do everywhere. It's known as the Poincare lemma. You end up with the situation which is commonly explained via the Dirac monopole. CE1 is talking about circles and projective spaces etc, which are topologically non-trivial yet utterly ignoring how such non-trivialities instantly lead to the Poincare lemma telling you you're unable to write down a universal A_a.

Furthermore, he explains such things as "R²#P² is the connected sum of R² and P². One can make this by making a P² and attaching to R² by connected sum.". It's like me saying "3 add 5 is obtained by adding 5 to 3.". This kind of overly pointless explaination on something which is a trivial matter to anyone familiar with such work makes me think he isn't familiar with it. That or he massively talks down to people who he should know know such things (why talk about connected sums and knotting codimensions to people who haven't heard of such things?).
Trout
QUOTE (AlphaNumeric+Sep 14 2009, 03:02 PM)


It isn't true.

I wanted to see if he can perform some simple calculations , this is how I find the fakers, you spoiled the trap :-)
IAMoraes
QUOTE (AlphaNumeric+Sep 14 2009, 11:02 AM)
But then 3rd grade mathematics is over your head so its hardly surprising something involving beyond high school maths is making you 'lost'.

Shut up and tell us about your 12-dimensional algebra matrix with factorial qualities...

[Moderator: Violation of Callahan's basic rule "A man's got to know his limitations" leaves poster looking too foolish to associate with this forum. Suspended 15 days.]
AlphaNumeric
QUOTE (IAMoraes+Sep 14 2009, 04:25 PM)
Shut up and tell us about your 12-dimensional algebra matrix with factorial qualities...

Oh yeah, you saw that link I gave to a post of mine on SciForums where I enquired about 12d Lie algebras. You made a rather pathetic attempt to insult me for doing something you didn't understand then too.

I'm past 12d Lie algebras now. Generalised geometry on, ironically, non-geometric spaces is what I'm messing with now. But I don't bother to tell you because, as this thread illustrates, you can't spot a mistake in stuff anywhere near what I do. If I want to monologue about my work I'd get a blog.

Oh and its funny you try to insult me for doing a topic you know nothing about. It's like you think someone knowing something is a reason to ridicule them. Would explain a few things......
CE1
Thank you for your responses. I'll try to address each of them.

First, d'oh!:
"A_v = x_v for no electromagnetic field"
should be
"A_v = x_v at infinite distance from any electromagnetic field"

Otherwise we have the problem that a hollow sphere of charge has no EM field in the center but we can't have A_v=x_v both inside and outside the sphere. Thanks for catching that.

I want to be clear that "A_v = x_v at infinite distance from any electromagnetic field" is an assumption. It's part of the way that we're defining A_v.



AlphaNumeric:

A_v is a 6-dimensional vector field on M. It is a mapping from each point on M to the tangent space of the 6-space at that point (not the tangent space of M). x_v is the coordinate of the 6-space. x_v is not a coordinate chart on M. If A_v = x_v then it is quite likely that A_v is not in the tangent space to M. The Poincare lemma does not apply to A_v. However, topological constraints do still apply to A_v. The above post is an attempt to show how those constraints imply charge.

Why should we assume that A_v = x_v if it has no effect on F_{ab}? This assumption is necessary to force the relation between the manifold topology and the field topology.

Regarding my description of R²#P²... as I read it now, restating the obvious was a little odd.


Trout:

I think this is what you meant:
Prove that A_v = x_v implies that F_{ab}=0.

AlphaNumeric provided an elegant solution. However, he wrote it in the language of differential forms. I would like to do approximately the same thing using 6-vectors on M (that cannot be expressed as differential forms on M).

Assume that M is flat and in the span of {x_0,x_1,x_2,x_3}. Let A_v = x_v. Then the derivative of A_v with respect to the 6-space metric is A_{a,b} and is 1 for a=b < 4 and 0 otherwise.* Then A_{a,b} is diagonal and therefore F_{a,b} = 0 in this frame. The 0 tensor transforms trivially, therefore F_{a,b}=0 in every frame.


* Note that if v^b is perpendicular to the tangent space of M then T_{a,b}v^b=0, for any tensor T_a. This tends not to come up much in general relativity.



IAMoraes:

There is quite a bit of jargon in these posts. Many of these symbols have different meanings depending on context. R can mean scalar curvature. R can also mean the real numbers. Without a background in differential geometry, topology, and some experience writing physics papers in LaTex, this is going to be totally incomprehensible. I'm sorry about that.

AlphaNumeric
QUOTE (CE1+Sep 15 2009, 08:53 PM)
First, d'oh!:
"A_v = x_v for no electromagnetic field"
should be
"A_v = x_v at infinite distance from any electromagnetic field" 

Otherwise we have the problem that a hollow sphere of charge has no EM field in the center but we can't have A_v=x_v both inside and outside the sphere.  Thanks for catching that.

You mean an infinite distance from any 'electric charge', not 'electromagnetic field'. A defines the electromagnetic field, where there's an A there's an F (aside from singularity issues). Further more the notion of distance is completely meaningless in a projective space, so talking about distance limits is dubious.

QUOTE (CE1+Sep 15 2009, 08:53 PM)
Regarding my description of R²#P²... as I read it now, restating the obvious was a little odd.
You go so far as to talk about the connected sum of 2 dimensional spaces with S^2, which is an utterly superfluous thing to do. It's like me saying "And we consider 5+0+0+0+0. Since X+0=X by definition of the ring of the Reals under addition then 5+0+0+0+0 = 5+0+0+0. Since X+0=X by definition of the ring of the Reals under addition then 5+0+0+0 = 5+0+0. Since X+0=X by definition of the ring of the Reals under addition then 5+0+0 = 5+0. Since X+0=X by definition of the ring of the Reals under addition then 5+0 = 5. So we're just considering 5". If I said this to anyone I'd probably get a momentary blank stare before a "Do you have any clue what you're talking about?" question. You have done something similar but with a slightly more advanced topic. The question is whether you have done this because you are thorough to the point of madness, which isn't the case given how you omit all derivations from your posts, or whether you actually don't understand this material yourself and you're doing the thing many people do when trying to explain something over their own head to others, they throw in pointless and superfluous facts to try and show they have learnt something but in doing so they reveal they haven't learnt much.

QUOTE (CE1+Sep 15 2009, 08:53 PM)
A_v is a 6-dimensional vector field on M. It is a mapping from each point on M to the tangent space of the 6-space at that point (not the tangent space of M). x_v is the coordinate of the 6-space. x_v is not a coordinate chart on M.
Now you've changed your tune. You said A was the electromagnetic 4 potential. The expressions like ∂^ν A_ν = -2 require it, if you're setting A_a = x_a. If A_a is actually in the 6d Minkowski space then ∂^ν A_ν = -4.

QUOTE (CE1+Sep 15 2009, 08:53 PM)
The Poincare lemma does not apply to A_v
If A is defined in the 6d space, which is Minkowski and which is contractable, then it does. If you restrict A to being defined only on M then in some cases, when M is contractable, it does. You have been talking about physically irrelevant M, 3 dimensions or 4 dimensions with a structure obviously not that of space-time. If you're mathematically educated you should know that such a sweeping statement like "Given some general M immersed in 6d Minkowski space-time then a vector field in the 6d space with support only on M will be unaffected by Poincare's lemma" is, even if true, going to need some pretty hefty backup, ie rigorous proof, before you can go any further in your work. But the problem is it is not something you proved. And worse, its not even true in general.

QUOTE (CE1+Sep 15 2009, 08:53 PM)
Why should we assume that A_v = x_v if it has no effect on F_{ab}? This assumption is necessary to force the relation between the manifold topology and the field topology.
But it gives you nothing which you don't already know. There's no field dynamics, its simply a gauge transformation from the simplest A=0 case and given you cannot construct a vector field over a space without already knowing the space having a couple of the space inside the vector field doesn't do anything new.

QUOTE (CE1+Sep 15 2009, 08:53 PM)
think this is what you meant:
Prove that A_v = x_v implies that F_{ab}=0.

AlphaNumeric provided an elegant solution
No, he wanted the converse and it was the reason I brought up the Poincare lemma. You said "If there is no electromagnetic field then A_ν = x_ν. ". This is utter nonsense. You made no assumptions other than the following "Elaborating on the A_ν field: we assume that A_ν is a continuous, differentiable vector field. Let x_ν be the coordinate in the Minkowski 6-space.".

Assuming A_ν is a continuous, differentiable vector field doesn't provide you with anything other than you know you can do calculus with it. You provide a coordinate chart x_ν on the 6d Minkowski space. So you've done nothing other than say "I'm on a flat Lorentz space-time and I use standard notation". This does NOT allow you to ignore the Poincare lemma and you have absolutely no additional information about how the vector potential might be constrained, you have started with the basic initial setup anyone doing a course in electrodynamics would have and magically pulled a non-trivial result out of your..... hat. We can completely ignore M really, all you do is provide reduced support for A in the 6d space, the 6d space is itself contractable and thus Poincare's lemma applies. Explain to me why I can't just take A=0. It's physically equalivent to your F=0, its related to your A by a gauge choice. You seem to think you have some fundamental reason for picking a particular gauge, despite having no reason to.

QUOTE (CE1+Sep 15 2009, 08:53 PM)
However, he wrote it in the language of differential forms. I would like to do approximately the same thing using 6-vectors on M (that cannot be expressed as differential forms on M)
Actually I used indices, the only time I used a differential form notation, with the A -> A' = A+df thing can easily be put in suffix notation. My point standard, how I state it using notation doesn't later that.

QUOTE (CE1+Sep 15 2009, 08:53 PM)
Assume that M is flat and in the span of {x_0,x_1,x_2,x_3}. Let A_v = x_v. Then the derivative of A_v with respect to the 6-space metric is A_{a,b} and is 1 for a=b < 4 and 0 otherwise.* Then A_{a,b} is diagonal and therefore F_{a,b} = 0 in this frame. The 0 tensor transforms trivially, therefore F_{a,b}=0 in every frame.
This entire thing is nonsense. So much so I'm suspicious about whether you're NeoNo.1, whose just spent his recent time away actually reading books but learning nothing. Let's go through this bit by bit :

Assume that M is flat and in the span of {x_0,x_1,x_2,x_3}

Why? You don't need to, you simply need to make sure that M has a well defined immersion into the 6d space. In doing that particular choice you immediately preclude the examples you were doing in your earlier posts. Your next comment Let A_v = x_v can be doable irrespective of what kind of structure M has.

Then the derivative of A_v with respect to the 6-space metric is A_{a,b} and is 1 for a=b < 4 and 0 otherwise.

Now this is a NeoNo.1 mistake I've seen before. A_{a,b} is the derivative of A_a with respect to coordinate x_b, not with respect to the 6d metric. A metric is a rank 2 object, not a single variable. If you're familiar with differential geometry then you would know about being able to take Lie derivatives with respect to a metric but you can't do normal derivatives like that. What you have just said is utter nonsense.

Then A_{a,b} is diagonal and therefore F_{a,b} = 0 in this frame.

Except noone has mentioned anything about frames. That's something which would require considerable more work to well define and develop in this kind of formalism, something you haven't done. Saying "Let A_a = x_a" is effectively a gauge choice for the assumed field strength F=0.

* Note that if v^b is perpendicular to the tangent space of M then T_{a,b}v^b=0, for any tensor T_a. This tends not to come up much in general relativity.

You mean 'for any tensor T_ab' and you mean 'For any tensor T_ab formed from tensor constructions using the tangent space of M', as your statement is basically the obvious fact that if v^b is perpendicular to the tangent space of M then anything built from the tangent space of M will be perpendicular to v^b. It does come up in GR, just its a pretty obvious statement to make, which brings us back to your habit of stating things which any learned person in this area would say "Yes, obviously.... and?" to.

So, are you another sock puppet of NeoNo.1, thus demonstrating you, Neo, have an enormous desperation to convince people you're learned, so much so you've put in a lot of time to learn a bit more of 'the talk' so as to make it harder to spot you have nothing beneath your ramblings, but the effort of actual learning is too much for you because this stuff is just beyond your ability or are you not NeoNo.1 but just someone doing what I have just accused him of?

If you aren't him (or you are but you're going to continue with the attempt to deceive) perhaps you'd like to elaborate on your mathematical knowledge/education. Did you do maths or physics at uni or are you self taught? Name a few textbooks you've used in the past. That sort of thing.
CE1
AlphaNumeric,

Thank you for your response.

Let me begin by addressing your last question about my background. I graduated Caltech in 1999 in math. I have spent considerable time since then reading and working on physics. The books on my desk right now are "General Relativity" by Robert Wald and "Gravitation and Spacetime" by Ohanian and Ruffini. Next to my desk are "Quantum Field Theory" by A. Zee, "Algebraic Topology" by William Fulton, and "High-dimensional Knot Theory" by Andrew Ranicki. Ranicki's book is still beyond me, but fortunately I've only needed a few results from it.

As I'm sure you've noticed, the time that I have spent working outside of academia has been detrimental to my ability to communicate naturally with the physics community. My greatest concern right now is to learn to fix that. I am extremely grateful for your patience.

Regarding the math and physics, it's probably going to be very clear that I don't know which things are used so often that they're taken for granted and which things are strange assumptions. I don't want to be patronizing by repeating what's obvious and I don't want to be unclear by skipping what's strange. So far I seem to have done a lot of both. Probably what I should do is to err on the side of caution/clarity. I hope this is not misinterpreted.



In the interest of increasing the clarity at the expense of repeating the obvious (in some cases the extremely obvious):

We can assume some mathematical objects and then derive conclusions about them. The purpose is to show a similarity to physical observations.


Assume a Minkowski 6-space Omega.
Comments:
The metric is diag(1,-1,-1,-1,-1,-1).
The Lorentz transformations are O(1,5).
Let the coordinates on Omega be x_v.


Assume a 4-manifold M embedded in the 6-space.
Comments:
The metric on M is inherited from the 6-space.
Transformations of Omega transform M in the natural way.
A tensor on M is a multilinear function on M taking vectors and co-vectors from the tangent space of Omega and mapping to the real numbers.


Assume a vector field A_v on M.
Assume that A_v satisfies A_v^{,v}=-2.
Assume a boundary condition of A_v that is A_v -> x_v at infinite distance from any electric field.




Comment: A_v is defined differently than the electromagnetic 4-potential of the Standard Model. Here we hope to show that it can serve an analogous purpose.

Comment: Let M be {x_0, x_1, x_2, x_3, 0, 0} and A_v=x_v. For any T_a, we have T_{a,b}v^b=0 if v^b is perpendicular to the tangent space of M. Therefore A_4^{,4}=A_5^{,5}=0. Therefore A_v^{,v}=-2. More generally, if A_v=x_v then A_v^{,v}=-2, regardless the geometry of M.

Comment: Why assume the boundary condition A_v -> x_v? Since A_v^{,v}=-2, certain topologies of M and A_v can force the condition A_0^{,0}=0. (More accurately A_{a,b}t^b=0 for a timelike t^b.) These topologies are associated with charge, in this description. If A_v -> x_v then A_0^{,0}=0 implies a charge-like field. If A_v -> 0 then there is no such implication.

Comment: Is it possible for A_v=x_v on non-trivial topology? Every point on M has some coordinates x_v. Set A_v equal to the value of those coordinates.

Comment: If any topology of M can allow A_v=x_v then how can there be a constraint resulting in A_0^{,0}=0? This requires assumptions about the topology of M and the topology of A_v.


Perhaps I should stop here to see if there are objections.


AlphaNumeric, if it would make the discussion more expedient, I would be happy to email you information to verify my identity and background.
AlphaNumeric
QUOTE (CE1+Sep 17 2009, 05:13 AM)
Let me begin by addressing your last question about my background. I graduated Caltech in 1999 in math. I have spent considerable time since then reading and working on physics. The books on my desk right now are "General Relativity" by Robert Wald and "Gravitation and Spacetime" by Ohanian and Ruffini. Next to my desk are "Quantum Field Theory" by A. Zee, "Algebraic Topology" by William Fulton, and "High-dimensional Knot Theory" by Andrew Ranicki. Ranicki's book is still beyond me, but fortunately I've only needed a few results from it.

I am struggling to believe this. The manner in which you try to present your ideas and the way in which you make elementary mistakes suggests you're very unfamiliar with maths, not just the quantitative side but even how to go about presenting your work. Even after I commented about you make huge claims without any justification you've kept doing it. Anyone whose read plenty of textbooks would present their work in a different way.

QUOTE (CE1+Sep 17 2009, 05:13 AM)
Regarding the math and physics, it's probably going to be very clear that I don't know which things are used so often that they're taken for granted and which things are strange assumptions.
You're unsure if having A_a as continuous and differentiable is assumed or not? Given it's a vector field that's built into its definition.

QUOTE (CE1+Sep 17 2009, 05:13 AM)
A tensor on M is a multilinear function on M taking vectors and co-vectors from the tangent space of Omega and mapping to the real numbers.
Yet another pointless definition. You're talking about vector fields, knoting spaces, inherited metrics, don't you think that the reader is either going to know what a tensor is or be utterly unable to understand anything you say? If you talk about calculus you don't need to explain what addition means. There's being clear and there's being stupid.

QUOTE (CE1+Sep 17 2009, 05:13 AM)
Assume a boundary condition of A_v that is A_v -> x_v at infinite distance from any electric field.
Can you demonstrate whether or not that's a consistent assumption to make?

QUOTE (CE1+Sep 17 2009, 05:13 AM)
Comment: A_v is defined differently than the electromagnetic 4-potential of the Standard Model. Here we hope to show that it can serve an analogous purpose.
Thus far all you've done is setup 5+1D electrodynamics and picked a gauge.

QUOTE (CE1+Sep 17 2009, 05:13 AM)
For any T_a, we have T_{a,b}v^b=0 if v^b is perpendicular to the tangent space of M
I previously explained why this was an error.

QUOTE (CE1+Sep 17 2009, 05:13 AM)
Comment: Let M be {x_0, x_1, x_2, x_3, 0, 0}
Then M is the usual 3+1D Minkowski space-time. This means Poincare's Lemma DOES apply. A point I explained before and which you utterly ignored

QUOTE (CE1+Sep 17 2009, 05:13 AM)
and A_v=x_v
So why assume A_v -> x_v separately if you're just going to set A anyway.

QUOTE (CE1+Sep 17 2009, 05:13 AM)
Comment: Why assume the boundary condition A_v -> x_v? Since A_v^{,v}=-2, certain topologies of M and A_v can force the condition A_0^{,0}=0. (More accurately A_{a,b}t^b=0 for a timelike t^b.)
But you just set M to be Minkowski space-time, you can't now start talking about other topologies.

QUOTE (CE1+Sep 17 2009, 05:13 AM)
These topologies are associated with charge, in this description. If A_v -> x_v then A_0^{,0}=0 implies a charge-like field. If A_v -> 0 then there is no such implication.
A->0 satisfies the condition you just mentioned, "A_0^{,0}=0. (More accurately A_{a,b}t^b=0 for a timelike t^b.)". Furthermore you haven't demonstrated how you would prove such a claim. If A_v -> x_v they by definition A_0,0 -> 1. You have set the vector potential, you can't now magically set it to be something else.

QUOTE (CE1+Sep 17 2009, 05:13 AM)
Comment: Is it possible for A_v=x_v on non-trivial topology? Every point on M has some coordinates x_v. Set A_v equal to the value of those coordinates.
Of course it can. I repeatedly asked you, which you conveniently utterly ignored, why there's anything special about A_a = x_a when its nothing more than a gauge transformation away from the trivial case of A_a = 0. All you have done is made a gauge choice on a vector field with support only on M. You haven't done anything to do with charges, because you set A_a by setting M. You could do stuff with A_a if you hadn't set M but I get the feeling you don't know how to do any of that, given you are struggling with basic component notation.

And why bother mentioning the SM? You haven't got a description of anything, you aren't doing anything quantum mechanical. If you had gone to Caltech and you'd kept yourself up to date you'd know just how far from anything SM-like you are. Nothing you've said couldn't have been gotten from 2 or 3 pages in particular textbooks and you look like you're trying to piece together various bits of pages from textbooks in such a way that it might appear, at first glance, you know what you're talking about but each post of yours is full of errors, most of them fairly subtle in how you set out your 'work'. The fact you repeated mistakes I'd pointed out and you utterly ignored things like my explicit statement Poincare's lemma applies, or my request you explain why your A_a = x_a is anything more than a gauge choice from A_a = 0, makes it look like you're covering something up.

You do exhibit many of the traits associated to a particular crank who used to post here, who desperately wanted people to believe he could do stuff he obviously couldn't, so much so he'd lie about what he was doing (general relativity in a community college?!) and he too often got variables and metrics confused and would copy wholesale sections of text he'd found elsewhere.

If you aren't him then might I suggest you stop being so damn opaque in your claims. You say you might be overly detailed, explaining things which can be assumed but then you avoid giving any justification for your claims. Copying out the definition of a tensor is pointless if the result involving tensors you claim isn't then proved. It'd be infinitely preferable if you didn't give the definition of well known mathematical objects and instead gave your sodding proofs.

Trout
QUOTE (CE1+Sep 12 2009, 10:30 PM)


As in the first post.  Elaborating on the A_ν field: we assume that A_ν is a continuous, differentiable vector field.  Let x_ν be the coordinate in the Minkowski 6-space.  If there is no electromagnetic field then A_ν = x_ν.  This is different than the usual description where A_ν is constant (usually 0) if there is no field.  The divergence of A_ν is assumed to be constant: ∂^ν A_ν = -2. 


I think AN is getting tired of your pretenses. I am getting tired of trying to gauge your physics knowledge, so let's try something really elementary:

1. The absence of magnetic "sources" is represented in electrodynamics as

divB=0

2. What does the above mean in terms of defining B in terms of a potential vector A?

Very simple question. No tensors, no manifolds, just plain vector algebra.
Geoff Mollusc
Trout, that's obviously gone whoosh (sonic boom) over this idiots head.

A more apt conundrum: If you've 5 candles and take 1 away - what have you got?

So what's the answer CE1?


smile.gif
Geoff Mollusc
CE1's most probable response

laugh.gif laugh.gif laugh.gif
CE1
Trout:
B=curl(A)
div( B)=div(curl(A))=0 because div(curl(V))=0 for any vector field V.



Quotes in italics:


CE1:
"A tensor on M is a multilinear function on M taking vectors and co-vectors from the tangent space of Omega and mapping to the real numbers."

AN:
"Yet another pointless definition. You're talking about vector fields, knoting spaces, inherited metrics, don't you think that the reader is either going to know what a tensor is or be utterly unable to understand anything you say?"


The relevant point is that the tensor takes its vectors and co-vectors from the tangent space of Omega, not the tangent space of M.



CE1:
"Assume a boundary condition of A_v that is A_v -> x_v at infinite distance from any electric field."

AN:
"Can you demonstrate whether or not that's a consistent assumption to make?"


Ignoring physics and considering only the mathematical possibility, there exists at least one vector field on M that satisfies this requirement. Specifically, A_v=x_v everywhere. This vector field is possible for any topology of M. To prove that, set the value of A_v equal to the coordinate. Are there other vector fields A_v that also satisfy A_v->x_v? With no other constraints on A_v, it is easy to find examples. Specifically, take A_v=x_v everywhere and then change it any continuous way on any compact set.

Using physical assumptions, use the usual electromagnetic 4-potential A^{Maxwell}. As a 4-vector it embeds naturally into a 6-dimensional tangent space. Now construct
A_v = x_v + A_v^{Maxwell}
If A_v^{Maxwell}->0 then A_v->x_v.

Using A_v^{Maxwell} on non-trivial topologies is ambiguous because A_v^{Maxwell} is not typically defined on non-trivial topologies. The purpose of this discussion is to extend A_v to those topologies so that it matches x_v + A_v^{Maxwell} wherever we have observations for A_v^{Maxwell}.






CE1:
"For any T_a, we have T_{a,b}v^b=0 if v^b is perpendicular to the tangent space of M"

AN:
"I previously explained why this was an error."


I think you're referring to this:


AN:
You mean 'for any tensor T_ab' and you mean 'For any tensor T_ab formed from tensor constructions using the tangent space of M', as your statement is basically the obvious fact that if v^b is perpendicular to the tangent space of M then anything built from the tangent space of M will be perpendicular to v^b.


A general tensor T_{ab} on M takes two elements from the tangent space of Omega and maps to a real number. For v^b perpendicular to the tangent space of M, it is certainly possible that T_{ab}v^b is not zero. However, for any rank n tensor T on M, the derivative of T is a rank n+1 tensor that gives the rate of change of T. Because T only changes in the direction of vectors that are in the tangent space of M, it follows that (for a rank 1 tensor T_a) T_{a,b}v^b=0 if v^b is perpendicular to the tangent space of M.



CE1:
"Comment: Let M be {x_0, x_1, x_2, x_3, 0, 0}"

AN:
"Then M is the usual 3+1D Minkowski space-time. This means Poincare's Lemma DOES apply. A point I explained before and which you utterly ignored"


In this case I was taking a concrete example so that I could show the derivatives on a particular geometry. The purpose was to show A_v^{,v}=-2 for A_v=x_v on this geometry. Then, because scalars transform trivially, we have A_v^{,v}=-2 at a point p, for any geometry as long as A_v=x_v in a neighborhood of p.




CE1:
"and A_v=x_v"

AN:
"So why assume A_v -> x_v separately if you're just going to set A anyway."


Again, this was a concrete example, as in the previous quote.



CE1:
"These topologies are associated with charge, in this description. If A_v -> x_v then A_0^{,0}=0 implies a charge-like field. If A_v -> 0 then there is no such implication."


AN:
"A->0 satisfies the condition you just mentioned, "A_0^{,0}=0. (More accurately A_{a,b}t^b=0 for a timelike t^b.)". Furthermore you haven't demonstrated how you would prove such a claim. If A_v -> x_v they by definition A_0,0 -> 1. You have set the vector potential, you can't now magically set it to be something else. "



If there is a field A_v such that A_v->x_v at infinity and on some world line (for example) there is A_0^{,0}=0, then this implies that there is a field gradient. However, if A_v->0 and on some world line there is A_0^{,0}=0 then there may be a gradient somewhere but it's not implied by the condition "A_0^{,0}=0 on the world line."





Trout
QUOTE (CE1+Sep 18 2009, 08:22 AM)
Trout:
B=curl(A)
div( cool.gif=div(curl(A))=0 because div(curl(V))=0 for any vector field V.




OK, maybe you are a good person after all.
Mind if we continue?

If B is curl(A) and curl(E)=-@B/@t then what is the expression for E?

If the Lorentz force is F=q(vxB+E) then:

1. what is the Lagrangian at low speeds and why?
2. what is the Lagrangian at relativistic speeds and why?
CE1

Trout,

Nice question choice. I'm guessing you teach.

Quotes in Italics:

"If B is curl(A) and curl(E)=-@B/@t then what is the expression for E?"


curl(E) = -dB/dt = -d(curl(A))/dt = -curl(dA/dt)
(derivatives commute)

Curl is a linear differential operator with non-trivial kernel. So
E = -dA/dt + V for some vector field V with curl(V)=0.
Curl is dw for some one-form w. Since ddw=0 for all differential forms w, we have ddf=0 for f a scalar function. We're assuming a contractible manifold so the only vector fields that get mapped to zero by curl are of the form df. Therefore

E = -dA/dt + grad(f) for some scalar function f. We can pull out a little physics knowledge here and use f=-φ, the electrostatic potential. So

E = -dA/dt - grad(φ)


"If the Lorentz force is F=q(vxB+E) then:

1. what is the Lagrangian at low speeds and why?
2. what is the Lagrangian at relativistic speeds and why?"


We'll begin from a Newtonian perspective and then show how it produces the relativistic description.

The Lagrangian L = KE-PE. At slow speeds, a massive particle has KE=(1/2)mv^2. For a charge at rest PE = Qφ. But "at rest" isn't quite enough here. We can use tensor notation and write PE = Qφ =j_0 A^0 for a charge current j_b and 4-potential A^b. Here j_b is a unit timelike 4-vector times the charge. There is a natural way to make this relativistic: j_b A^b. Now let's make it Newtonian again,

L = KE - PE
L = (1/2)mv^2 - j_b A^b
changing to just summing over spacelike indices
L = (1/2)mv^2 - j_0 A^0 + j_b A^b
L = (1/2)mv^2 - Q (A^0 - v_b A^b)
L = (1/2)mv^2 - Q (φ - v.A)

A good time to check the answer, let's use the equation of motion:

(d/dt)(dL/dqdot) - (dL/dq)=0
where those d's should be partials and qdot is the time derivative of q. Each q is one of the coordinates of the Lagrangian. For convenience we'll switch to Einstein notation but the sum is only over spacelike indices. Starting with the dL/dq (not the qdot)

∂^a L = -Q ∂^a(φ - v_b A^b)
∂^a L = Q(v_b^{,a} A^b + v_b A^{b,a} - φ^{,a})
v_b^{,a} = 0
∂^a L = Q(v_b A^{b,a} - φ^{,a})

Now to the qdots, doing them all at once as a vector,
(d/dt)(dL/dqdot)= (d/dt)(mv) + Q(d/dt)(A)
(d/dt)(dL/dqdot)= ma + Q(d/dt)(A)
but A depends on both x and t, and x depends on t so
(d/dt)(dL/dqdot)= ma + Q(d/dt)(A(x(t), t)
(d/dt)(dL/dqdot)= ma + Q(dA/dt + A^{a,b}(dx_b/dt))
and dx_b/dt = v_b so
(d/dt)(dL/dqdot)= ma + Q(dA/dt + A^{a,b}v_b)
where we have done a lot of jumping back and forth in notation. Putting it all together we get

0 = (d/dt)(dL/dqdot) - (dL/dq)= ma + Q(dA/dt + A^{a,b}v_b) - Q(v_b A^{b,a} - φ^{,a})
therefore
ma + Q(dA/dt + A^{a,b}v_b) - Q(v_b A^{b,a} - φ^{,a}) = 0
ma = -Q(dA/dt + A^{a,b}v_b) + Q(v_b A^{b,a} - φ^{,a})
ma = Q(-dA/dt - A^{a,b}v_b) + Q(v_b A^{b,a} - φ^{,a})
ma = Q(-dA/dt - grad(φ) - A^{a,b}v_b + v_b A^{b,a})
ma = Q(E + v_b (A^{b,a} - A^{a,b}))
ma = Q(E + v x curl(A))
ma = Q(E + v x B)

which looks good. But this is not Lorentzian. To fix it we use the Lagrangian for a massive particle. The path of a massive particle follows the maximal proper time. The Lagrangian is

L = m/γ
Now we're practically done. A charged particle traveling in an electromagnetic field would be
L = m/γ - j_b A^b

Instead of ma = Q(E + v x B) we get dp^a/dτ = j_b F^{ab}

But this is an approximation. A charged particle has its own field and an accelerating particle produces electromagnetic radiation, which we have not modeled here. If we include the particle field then the field eliminates the need for j_b A^b. To include the particle field, we include a term F^{ab}_{particle} for the charged particle and add it to the existing field. Then call the total field F^{ab}. Now the Lagrangian includes a term F_{ab}F^{ab}. Does it contribute positively or negatively?
F_{ab}F^{ab} = 2(B.B - E.E)
A positively charged particle at rest in a positive potential contributes positively to both PE and E.E. Therefore L = KE - PE implies a positive sign, giving

L = m/γ + F_{ab}F^{ab}



Trout
QUOTE (CE1+Sep 21 2009, 09:17 AM)
Trout,

Nice question choice.  I'm guessing you teach.

Quotes in Italics:

"If B is curl(A) and curl(E)=-@B/@t then what is the expression for E?"


curl(E) = -dB/dt = -d(curl(A))/dt = -curl(dA/dt)
(derivatives commute)

Curl is a linear differential operator with non-trivial kernel.  So
E = -dA/dt + V  for some vector field V with curl(V)=0.
Curl is dw for some one-form w.  Since ddw=0 for all differential forms w, we have ddf=0 for f a scalar function.  We're assuming a contractible manifold so the only vector fields that get mapped to zero by curl are of the form df.  Therefore

E = -dA/dt + grad(f)  for some scalar function f.  We can pull out a little physics knowledge here and use f=-φ, the electrostatic potential.  So

E = -dA/dt - grad(φ)





You mean:


E = -@A/@t - grad(φ)

(partial, not total, derivatives). But you are essentially correct.

QUOTE

"If the Lorentz force is F=q(vxB+E) then:

1. what is the Lagrangian at low speeds and why?
2. what is the Lagrangian at relativistic speeds and why?"


We'll begin from a Newtonian perspective and then show how it produces the relativistic description.

The Lagrangian L = KE-PE.  At slow speeds, a massive particle has KE=(1/2)mv^2.  For a charge at rest PE = Qφ.  But "at rest" isn't quite enough here.  We can use tensor notation and write PE = Qφ =j_0 A^0 for a charge current j_b and 4-potential A^b.  Here j_b is a unit timelike 4-vector times the charge.  There is a natural way to make this relativistic:  j_b A^b.  Now let's make it Newtonian again,

L = KE - PE
L = (1/2)mv^2 -  j_b A^b
changing to just summing over spacelike indices
L = (1/2)mv^2 -  j_0 A^0 +  j_b A^b
L = (1/2)mv^2 - Q (A^0 -  v_b A^cool.gif
L = (1/2)mv^2 - Q (φ - v.A)


Correct.

QUOTE (->
QUOTE

"If the Lorentz force is F=q(vxB+E) then:

1. what is the Lagrangian at low speeds and why?
2. what is the Lagrangian at relativistic speeds and why?"


We'll begin from a Newtonian perspective and then show how it produces the relativistic description.

The Lagrangian L = KE-PE.  At slow speeds, a massive particle has KE=(1/2)mv^2.  For a charge at rest PE = Qφ.  But "at rest" isn't quite enough here.  We can use tensor notation and write PE = Qφ =j_0 A^0 for a charge current j_b and 4-potential A^b.  Here j_b is a unit timelike 4-vector times the charge.  There is a natural way to make this relativistic:  j_b A^b.  Now let's make it Newtonian again,

L = KE - PE
L = (1/2)mv^2 -  j_b A^b
changing to just summing over spacelike indices
L = (1/2)mv^2 -  j_0 A^0 +  j_b A^b
L = (1/2)mv^2 - Q (A^0 -  v_b A^cool.gif
L = (1/2)mv^2 - Q (φ - v.A)


Correct.


which looks good.  But this is not Lorentzian.  To fix it we use the Lagrangian for a massive particle.  The path of a massive particle follows the maximal proper time.  The Lagrangian is

L = m/γ
Now we're practically done.  A charged particle traveling in an electromagnetic field would be
L = m/γ - j_b A^b

Instead of ma = Q(E + v x cool.gif  we get  dp^a/dτ = j_b F^{ab}

But this is an approximation.  A charged particle has its own field and an accelerating particle produces electromagnetic radiation, which we have not modeled here.  If we include the particle field then the field eliminates the need for j_b A^b.  To include the particle field, we include a term F^{ab}_{particle} for the charged particle and add it to the existing field.  Then call the total field F^{ab}.  Now the Lagrangian includes a term F_{ab}F^{ab}.  Does it contribute positively or negatively?
F_{ab}F^{ab} = 2(B.B - E.E)
A positively charged particle at rest in a positive potential contributes positively to both PE and E.E.  Therefore L = KE - PE implies a positive sign, giving

L =  m/γ + F_{ab}F^{ab}


Correct again, you are a good guy. I apologise for thinking otherwise but your first post was well, off.
Perhaps you can help me with this project, the covariant definition of the Hooke law.
See here
Dr Fred A Wolf
And I apologize on behalf of Geoff Mollusc. laugh.gif
CE1
I need to make a correction.

L = KE - PE

Newtonian:
L = (1/2)mv^2 - j_b A^b

Then change to the relativistic approach and we know we need to replace (1/2)mv^2 with the Lagrangian for a massive particle which is m/γ. However, (1/2)mv^2 is an increasing function of velocity and m/γ is a decreasing function of velocity. Therefore we need

L = - m/γ - j_b A^b

and not

L = m/γ - j_b A^b


CE1
I'm not sure where things stand with this discussion.

If there are further comments on the present posts, I'm happy to discuss.

Otherwise, I can introduce the next topic in the theory.

(Silence does not imply agreement with the present posts. It only implies that you're more interested in seeing the next topic than in discussing the current one.)
rpenner
So you are abandoning your former claims?
CE1
My intention is to take points from the opening post and develop them. Each point will be developed using the same set of assumptions.

The first point that I chose was particle charge. If there is further interest in that topic, I am happy to discuss it. Otherwise, I can choose another point from the opening post and develop it.

I will not later say that no one expressed objections now and therefore they implicitly agreed to whatever was already written. If at some later time someone wants to return to a previous topic then I have no objections. If there are requests to address a particular topic from the opening post (or indeed any question about consequences of the assumptions) then I will do my best to respond.

CE1
Key points:
Lorentz transformations of T_{ab}
T_{ab} transformations for v not parallel to M
v not parallel to M gives rest mass to field
rest mass for a field is similar to the weak force



Purpose:

To show how an embedded manifold M has properties similar to the electroweak unification.



Assumptions:

As in the previous posts. M is a 4-manifold embedded in a Minkowski 6-space. There is a field A_v on M. The Lagrangian on M is L = k + F^{ab}F_{ab}.



A few results

M is a 4-manifold embedded in a 6-space. What does the stress-energy tensor T_{ab} look like on M? T_{ab} is a 6-dimensional rank 2 tensor on M. For convenience assume that the tangent space to M is {x_0, x_1, x_2, x_3} at a point p. Then at p, T_{ab} = 0 if a or b is 4 or 5. Now let M move at p so that we get a new stress energy tensor T'_{ab} by a Lorentz transformation of T_{ab}. Let the transforming velocity be in the direction of x_4 with magnitude v. Then T_{ab} transforms such that

T'_{00} = γ^2 T_{00}
T'_{04} = T'_{40} = vγ^2 T_{00}
T'_{44} = (vγ)^2 T_{00}

and is otherwise unchanged. However, if M is in motion at p then the measure dM is not dtdV. Transforming M also transforms dt so dt' = dt/γ. Incorporating that in the measure gives

T'_{00}dt' = γ T_{00}dt
T'_{04}dt' = T'{40}dt' = vγ T_{00}dt
T'_{44}dt' = v^2 γ T_{00}dt.

Now consider if T_{00} has rest mass m and field energy f at p, so T_{00} = m+f at rest. The field energy f transforms in the same way as the rest mass if the velocity of transformation is perpendicular to the manifold, so

T'_{00}dt' = γ T_{00}dt = γ(m+f)dt.

(In these transformations, it is important that the direction of motion is not parallel to the manifold.)

Assume there is a particle with non-trivial topology on M. Then there may be a point p on the particle where the manifold is not flat and the field energy is non-zero. Consider the apparent rest mass of the particle. How does the energy change as a function of particle velocity? The velocities that are possible for the particle are the ones that are parallel to flat spacetime. If those velocities are not parallel to the manifold at p then the field energy at p can contribute to the apparent rest mass.

Far from particles, the manifold is flat and the field transforms masslessly, as in electromagnetism. Close to particles, the manifold is not flat and the field may have apparent rest mass, as in the weak force.



CE1
Key points:
electroweak unification
A_v field has 6 dimensions and M has 4
difference in dimension implies gauge groups
flat space has one type of gauge group
non-flat space has a different gauge group



Purpose:

To show how an embedded manifold M has properties similar to the electroweak unification. The description of the A_v field on M can be approximated with gauge groups. The description is an approximation only, not a mathematical equivalence.




Assumptions:

As in the previous posts. M is a 4-manifold embedded in a Minkowski 6-space. There is a field A_v on M. The Lagrangian on M is L = k + F^{ab}F_{ab}.



A few results

The vector field A_v is a 6-dimensional vector field on M. M has only 4 dimensions. For F_{ab} = A_{b,a}-A_{a,b}, the Lagrangian is L = k+F^{ab}F_{ab}, which is equivalent to electromagnetism if the manifold is flat. F_{ab} is a 6-dimensional anti-symmetric tensor. Anti-symmetric matrices are infinitesimal generators of rotation matrices. F_{ab} is an infinitesimal generator of an element of SO(6). Derivatives A_{a,b} satisfy A_{a,b}v^b = 0 if v^b is perpendicular to the tangent space of M because the field A_v does not change in any direction perpendicular to M. If M is flat in the region being considered then we can assume that it is in the span of {x_0, x_1, x_2, x_3} without loss of generality. Then the components F_{45} and F_{54} have no effect. They correspond to a subgroup SO(2).

If M is not flat then it may not be in the span of {x_0, x_1, x_2, x_3}. Any coordinate axis may be perpendicular to M, except M will never be perpendicular to x_0. M is still 4-dimensional, therefore we need a gauge group. To include the possibility that M is not flat, we can have field components with a gauge group for F_{45} and F_{54} and other field components with a gauge group for F_{ab} for a and b in {1,2,3}. This gives a gauge group SO(3)xSO(2), again a subgroup of SO(6).

Far from particles, the manifold is flat, the gauge group is SO(2)=U(1), and the field is massless (from the previous post) corresponding to electromagnetism. Close to particles, the manifold is not flat, the gauge group is SO(3)xSO(2), and the field can have mass (from the previous post). The group SU(2) surjects onto SO(3) with kernel {I,-I}, therefore SO(3)xSO(2) is locally isomorphic to SU(2)xU(1), the gauge group of the electroweak unification.

To find the charge on non-flat space we can take F_{ab}^{,a}=j_b with j_b the charge current. If the manifold is not flat then F_{ab}^{,a} may have non-zero contribution from any index a in {1,2,3,4,5}. Therefore there can be a contribution to the charge from the components parallel to flat space and the components that are not parallel to flat space. These are components corresponding to the gauge group SO(3) and the gauge group SO(2). Using terms from the electroweak description,

Q = T_z + (1/2)Y_W
with Q the electric charge, T_z the third component of weak isospin, and Y_W the weak hypercharge.


CE1


Key points:
strong force
elementary fermions are S¹xP²
S¹xP² can link
linked S¹xP² are quarks
linking implies topological constraints
the links must be close but position is otherwise unconstrained
therefore confinement and asymptotic freedom
modeling the geometry resembles QCD




Purpose:

To show how an embedded manifold M has properties similar to the strong force.




Assumptions:

As in the previous posts. M is a 4-manifold embedded in a Minkowski 6-space. Elementary fermions are S¹xP² attached to the manifold by connected sum.




A few results

A spacelike slice of M can have a S¹xP² attached by connected sum along a torus parallel to the S¹ fiber. A P² can be attached to R². Multiple copies of P² attached to R² can be linked. Fibering over S¹, we can get multiple copies of S¹xP² that are attached to R³ and are linked. Linked S¹xP² cannot be separated in the same way that linked circles cannot be separated in 3 dimensions. If the S¹xP² are close to each other then they exert no force on each other, again in the same way that linked circles in 3 dimensions do not pull each other when they are close.

Interpreting the linked S¹xP² as quarks, they have the properties of confinement and asymptotic freedom. We can apply a mathematical model to the linked quarks. At a time t, there is a spacelike slice of M and each quark has a position in a 5-space. Label some quarks Q, R, S. Then each quark has a 5-position vector. The vectors can be written
Q = (Q_1, Q_2, Q_3, Q_4, Q_5)
R = (R_1, R_2, R_3, R_4, R_5)
S = (S_1, S_2, S_3, S_4, S_5)

We can choose the average position of the quarks to be the origin of their coordinates. Then Q+R+S=0. Now, we want to describe the condition that they can be anywhere relative to each other as long as they are close enough. To do that we can restrict the magnitude of the vectors, for example |Q| = 1. However, this does not allow the quarks to all be close to each other. To do that we can add a non-physical sixth coordinate to make Q', R', and S'. So,
Q' = (Q_1, Q_2, Q_3, Q_4, Q_5, Q_6)
R' = (R_1, R_2, R_3, R_4, R_5, R_6)
S' = (S_1, S_2, S_3, S_4, S_5, S_6)

Now the condition |Q'| = 1 implies |Q| is between 0 and 1. In other words, the quarks can be anywhere relative to each other as long as they are within distance 1 of the center.


We want these conditions: |Q'|=|R'|=|S'|=1 and Q'+R'+S'=0. Are these conditions satisfiable? The condition Q'+R'+S'=0 implies Q+R+S=0. This uniquely determines the first five coordinates of the origin of coordinates. Then |Q'|=|R'|=|S'|=1 determines Q_6, R_6, and S_6 up to +/-. However, there is no guarantee that Q_6+R_6+S_6=0. Therefore we are over-constrained by one degree of freedom. If we also allow S_5 to be variable then the conditions are satisfiable.

Now we have a 6-dimensional vector for each quark that describes its possible position in the 5-space at any time. The vectors satisfy |Q'|=|R'|=|S'|=1 and Q'+R'+S'=0. We can convert these 6-dimensional vectors to complex 3-vectors. Denote them with a ''. Then

Q'' = (Q_1 + iQ_2, Q_3 + iQ_4, Q_5 + iQ_6)
R'' = (R_1 + iR_2, R_3 + iR_4, R_5 + iR_6)
S'' = (S_1 + iS_2, S_3 + iS_4, S_5 + iS_6)

And we still have |Q''|=|R''|=|S''|=1 and Q''+R''+S''=0.

Our desired condition is that the position of the quarks is irrelevant as long as they are close enough. The condition of being close enough is automatically satisfied by the unit vector constraint. To make the position irrelevant we can use a gauge group. With complex 3-vectors we can use the gauge group SU(3). The gauge group SU(3) is 8-dimensional. The vectors Q'', R'', S'' have 18 coordinates, 6 constraints from summing to zero, and 3 constraints from being unit vectors. Therefore they have 9 degrees of freedom. The group SU(3) is a 8-dimensional subgroup approximation of the 9-dimensional group that maps between all possible positions.

If we call the vectors Q'', R'', and S'' the color charge, then we have an approximation of QCD.

For mesons, the same description works for two quarks Q'' and R''.

rpenner
I'm not seeing a Least Publishable Unit (LPU) here.
Confused2
Could this be a STIPOID (something to interest people only it didn't .. so far)?
CE1

I have two papers developing this theory. They are about 25 pages each. The first paper describes the fields, forces, and quantum theory. The second paper describes the particles and topology. So far, everything that I've discussed here is from the first half of the first paper.

Thank you for the responses. I'm having trouble distinguishing whether anyone is reading any of this.
Granouille
I am. My math skills aren't up to par, but my language and comprehension skills are.

If you aren't a sockpuppet of Mr. Fish, feel free to register at my Joint. We have a few mathematicians and physicists that are probably willing to discuss your papers.

It may take a while to get an adequate response, because I have the most boring forum in the world, according to some others here, anyhow. wink.gif

Besides, I allow image upload and I have LaTeX available, so you won't have to struggle so much.




Addendum for the peanut gallery: Who asked you? smile.gif
CE1


Key points:
gravity and symmetry breaking
Lagrangian is L = k+F^{ab}F_{ab}
with no electromagnetic field L = k
minimizing Lagrangian in vacuum implies minimizing scalar curvature
therefore the Lagrangian of general relativity in vacuum follows
conservation laws imply stress-energy term
co-dimension 2 implies spontaneous symmetry breaking



Purpose:

To show how an embedded manifold M has properties similar to gravity. Spontaneous symmetry breaking follows, possibly leading to CP violation for particles.




Assumptions:

As in the previous posts. M is a 4-manifold embedded in a Minkowski 6-space. The Lagrangian is L = k+F^{ab}F_{ab} for some constant k.




A few results

The Lagrangian on M is L = k+F^{ab}F_{ab} for some constant k. If there is no electromagnetic field then L = k. Then integrating the Lagrangian over the manifold gives ∫k dM. This integral is proportional to the 4-volume of the manifold. We would like to show that minimizing the 4-volume of M implies minimizing the Lagrangian of general relativity. The Lagrangian of general relativity is

∫ R (-g)^(1/2) d^4y
Here R is the scalar curvature and g is the determinant of the metric. The y coordinates in this formula are from a coordinate chart on M. Using our assumptions about M and a coordinate chart, this Lagrangian is well-defined. Now assume an infinitesimal bounded region D on M with a boundary that is fixed in the 6-space and on D the scalar curvature R is nearly constant. Fixing the boundary in the 6-space is not an option for the Lagrangian of general relativity and this distinction is the reason that the Lagrangians are different. The Lagrangians ∫k dM and ∫ R (-g)^(1/2) d^4y both take some value on D. Consider the geodesic curves that begin at the center of D and reach its boundary. The area of the endpoints of those curves must equal the area of the boundary. The area of the endpoints is, to leading order, proportional to 1-Rr^2/(6n). The volume of D is minimized when the area of the endpoints equals the area of the boundary most quickly, as a function of radius. This happens when R is minimized. (Removing bumps reduces volume.) Therefore the Lagrangian ∫k dM implies the Lagrangian ∫ R (-g)^(1/2) d^4y. Therefore Einstein's field equation in the vacuum follows:

R^{ab}-(1/2)g^{ab}R = 0

where g^{ab} is the metric on M, which is inherited from the Minkowski 6-space. However, the equation for the vacuum does not apply where there are knots. Knots do not minimize volume and they do not minimize scalar curvature. If M were truly volume-minimizing then all knots on M would shrink down to points. Instead, quantum properties prevent this from happening. EM fields also do not satisfy volume-minimization because the fields contribute to the Lagrangian as F^{ab}F_{ab} in L=k+F^{ab}F_{ab}. So we would expect that particles and fields would imply that R^{ab}-(1/2)g^{ab}R = 0 is not satisfied. In that case we have

R^{ab}-(1/2)g^{ab}R = S^{ab}
for some rank 2 tensor S. The left side has 0 covariant divergence

(R^{ab}-(1/2)g^{ab}R)_{;a}=0 therefore S^{ab}_{;a}=0.

In the limit that the metric approaches flatness we have S^{ab}_{,a}=0. The tensors with zero covariant divergence are of the form S^{ab}=d(T^{ab}-h^{ab}) where h^{ab} and d are constant as the metric approaches flatness. If there are no particles and fields then S^{ab}=0 and T^{ab}=g^{ab}. Therefore h^{ab}=g^{ab}. Then the equation R^{ab}-(1/2)g^{ab}R = S^{ab} states that the curvature is proportional to the stress-energy tensor T^{ab} minus the stress-energy of gravity and flat spacetime. This matches general relativity where the stress-energy of gravity and flat spacetime do not contribute to S^{ab}.




If there is curvature then the manifold is obviously not flat. For a manifold embedded in a Minkowski spacetime, volume-minimization implies waves. In co-dimension 2 the waves rotate. If a point p at rest is (t,x,y,z,0,0) then when rotating it will be of the form

(t,x,y,z,Bcos(wt),Csin(wt))

The Lagrangian L = k is optimized when the waves have maximum velocity for minimum area. This implies that the waves should be circular. Each particle produces its own waves and those waves interfere. Waves can rotate as

(t,x,y,z, cos(wt), sin(wt)) or
(t,x,y,z, cos(wt), -sin(wt))

The Lagrangian is optimized when all waves are rotating in the same direction. This is spontaneous symmetry breaking and may relate to CP violation. For CP violation the rotation would need to couple to particle geometry.


CE1

Key points:
quantum field theory
modify the assumptions for quantum principles
psi-squared probability from particle volume
path integral from recombination




Purpose:

To show how an embedded manifold M can have properties similar to quantum field theory. We need to modify the assumptions of the previous posts to allow M to have quantum properties. If there is a Lagrangian on M that is perfectly optimized, then M is deterministic, which does not match physical observations. Even for a non-deterministic M, accommodating the double-slit experiment requires a sum over histories. We will begin by modifying the assumptions and then provide an outline of a proof to re-create the path integral.




Assumptions, first approach:

M is a 4-manifold embedded in a Minkowski 6-space. The function L = k+F^{ab}F_{ab} when integrated over M is some constant, ∫L dM = constant.




Results of first approach

If the integral ∫L dM is constant then the manifold will tend towards the integral-minimizing manifold because of probability. Consider, for example, a random path of fixed length from point B to C. It is possible for the path to go in a straight line from B to some point D and from D to C such that the path is stretched as tight as it can be. It is possible, but it is unlikely. This is likewise true for each sub-part of the path. If we allow the path to have unbounded curvature then the path will be arbitrarily close to the straight line from B to C with probability 1. Likewise, for any random manifold with a fixed "action" (in this case the action is not optimized, only fixed) the manifold will be arbitrarily close to the optimal manifold with probability 1. Therefore L serves the same purpose as the Lagrangian though it is not actually the Lagrangian.

The manifold is no longer deterministic, but the probability of a non-optimizing result is 0. Also, the double slit experiment would not produce a sum-over-histories result. We therefore continue to modify the assumptions.




Assumptions, second approach:

Assume a set of histories that determine the probability of any observational result. The set has finite measure. Each history, or path, is a 4-manifold embedded in a Minkowski 6-space. The function L = k+F^{ab}F_{ab} when integrated over each path is some constant, ∫L dM = constant. The histories branch and they interact by recombining when they are "close enough" for some definition of close enough.




Results of second approach

The set of paths saturate the most likely paths that are arbitrarily close to the optimal manifold. When those paths are saturated, less likely paths have non-zero probability. Therefore there is genuine non-determinism.

If two paths are topologically distinct then they cannot recombine. However, if they have the same topology and they are close to each other then they can recombine. Let a point p have coordinates in each of two paths, then the recombination would just be the average of those two coordinates: x_v(p1) and x_v(p2) in the individual paths recombine to (1/2)[x_v(p1)+x_v(p2)].

Now a rotating knot that has phase angle θ_1 in path 1 and phase angle θ_2 in path 2 would have a point p with these coordinates in each of the two paths:

(t, x, y, z, bsin(θ_1), bcos(θ_1))
(t, x, y, z, bsin(θ_2), bcos(θ_2))

and the average of the two would be

(t, x, y, z, (1/2)[bsin(θ_1)+bsin(θ_2)], (1/2)[bcos(θ_1)+bcos(θ_2)])

One could express the last two coordinates using a single complex number to make e^{iθ_1} and e^{iθ_2} and then the average is (1/2)[e^{iθ_1} + e^{iθ_2}].

We constrain the manifold such that it cannot pass through itself (by definition of embedding). A knot on the manifold constrains the set of paths. To compare, consider a one-dimensional path that is constrained to pass through a circle of radius r. The size of the radius determines the measure of the set of paths consistent with the requirement. Likewise, the size of a knot on the manifold determines the measure of the set of paths. In general, the probability is proportional to the "interior volume" of the knot. There is no space that is strictly inside of the knot but a linear scaling of the knot geometry scales the interior volume by an equal amount.

If two paths recombine then the recombination affects the points on those paths by the averaging, as above. The points on a knot are likewise affected by averaging. Those points have coordinates of the form

(t, x, y, z, bsin(θ_1), bcos(θ_1))

and averaging produces

(t, x, y, z, (1/2)[bsin(θ_1)+bsin(θ_2)], (1/2)[bcos(θ_1)+bcos(θ_2)])

Which can be expressed as (1/2)[e^{iθ_1} + e^{iθ_2}]. Two of the knot dimensions are affected by the recombination. Therefore two dimensions of the knot's interior volume are affected by the recombination. Therefore the probability is affected as the square of the averaged amplitude which is

|(1/2)[e^{iθ_1} + e^{iθ_2}]|^2

If we only need to consider two paths then this reproduces the result from the double-slit experiment.

If a subset of all paths has a knot at a particular location then those knots recombine and their phases add as above. The paths that have no knot at that location do not recombine because they are topologically different at that location. The total probability of observing a particle at that location is therefore the measure of the paths that recombine divided by the measure of the total set of paths. Assigning complex amplitudes to each of the contributing paths gives the description familiar from quantum mechanics.

The recombination happens at every time. From here the reasoning is the same as for the path integral.







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