Pan
9th October 2006 - 06:01 AM
Well okay...
First, since the system is frictionless, the force of gravity on m1 and m2 is irrelavent.
Hmm, what would be the right to left force on m2? the acceleration left to right of the pully? Sooo.... if T1 is tension from m1 to pully, and T2 is pully to m2, T2 would be... sqrt( (m2*a)^2 + (m2*g)^2)? (A^2 + B^2 = C^2)
If you solve for a, it would seem that if m2 > m1 you would have an imaginary number acceration?! It's late, that can't be right...
no, i'm betting the trig is irrelavent, m2 is moving straight up. The pully must be frictionless, one of them ideal frictionless pullies that translate force at right angles, so T1 = m1a (with respect to m3) and T2 = m2g.
yes yes, that's sounding more betterer to me right now.