QUOTE (leonhenry+May 19 2012, 03:22 PM)
I'm looking for help with a flow in parallel pipe problem:
3 pipes in parallel, all 1000ft in length.
Pipe 1=1" dia at 20ft
Pipe 2=3" dia at 10ft
Pipe 3=2" dia at 0ft
A 6" dia pipe with 1000 gpm and at 10 ft flow feeds into the 3 parallel pipes. I need flow in each pipe. All pipes are sch 40.
I've tried using: h=(f(L/D))* V2/2g but the values seem too small.
According to Qtot= Q1+Q2+Q3, The sum of the 3 pipes should equal 1000 gpm. I'm not even close. What am I doing wrong?
1000 feet of pipe?
"Pipe 1=1" dia at 20ft
Pipe 2=3" dia at 10ft
Pipe 3=2" dia at 0ft" What do you mean?
A 6" dia pipe with 1000 gpm and at 10 ft" What does this mean?
"All pipes are sch 40." What does this mean?
It seems a lot of material to pass through these very long pipes. There would be a lot of resistance to flow.
Mekigal
20th May 2012 - 06:59 AM
QUOTE (Robittybob1+May 20 2012, 12:48 AM)
1000 feet of pipe?
"Pipe 1=1" dia at 20ft
Pipe 2=3" dia at 10ft
Pipe 3=2" dia at 0ft" What do you mean?
A 6" dia pipe with 1000 gpm and at 10 ft" What does this mean?
"All pipes are sch 40." What does this mean?
It seems a lot of material to pass through these very long pipes. There would be a lot of resistance to flow.
schedule 40 is the thickness of the pipe . P.V.C. pipe
PhysOrg scientific forums are totally dedicated to science, physics, and technology. Besides topical forums such as nanotechnology, quantum physics, silicon and III-V technology, applied physics, materials, space and others, you can also join our news and publications discussions. We also provide an off-topic forum category. If you need specific help on a scientific problem or have a question related to physics or technology, visit the PhysOrg Forums. Here you’ll find experts from various fields online every day.
To quit out of "lo-fi" mode and return to the regular forums, please click
here.