I don't have a "momentum" to show anyone, I can only see everything as symbolic infinitesimals frozen in time. So here is an atom:
101010101...
110110110...
101010101...
111101111...
100010100...
111111011...
101010101...
110110110...
...
A proton is, then, half of that, which means that half of an infinity is an infinitesimal (but that goes in another context). Only the angle of the "freeze in time" changes because it is exactly like a whole atom. Everything above the 10000000000... is a proton, and below, another proton. (I covered my bases with a symbolic explanation of why this is a proton in another thread, but you don't really need that explanation because this is all symbolism.) Here it is:
QUOTE
0110110110...
0101010101...
0111111011...
0100010100...
0111101111...
0101010101...
0110110110...
0101010101...
0111111111...
1000000000...
0111111111...
0101010101...
0110110110...
0101010101...
0111101111...
0100010100...
0111111011...
0101010101...
0110110110...
...
I can *see* why it has a "half spin"... I just put it there, didn't I?
So I can see an angle as the "momentum" and that is the closest thing I will ever get to understanding it. The best way to get a better estimate of what "momentum" is, if and when you get a minimal information set, is to double the value of your informational system. Since the distance of my informational set above will never go over 9 (because I didn't bother to write it) the "radius" of that "atom" is 18 (plus a fraction of the value of the infinitesimal 10000000000000...)
As you can see, I don't see any "force" or "gravity" as both would be impossible in a system stopped in time. I can imagine "electricity", though. Of course I can imagine it. It's just the coordinate 101010101010... and that is it.
(I am running to the caves right this minute because I don't know the first thing about "electricity", I have no way of understanding it in any other way, and there is no possibility that I will ever change my view on that which I do not understand: how could I?!)
But hte question was why can't I have a more accurate prediction for "momentum" when I have enough information about a system. I can too!
If a "spin" stopped in time (within a system) can reduced to an angle, the "momentum" will be predicted within a cone. I don't see why no one saw it yet.
The reason is very clear! Anyone who doesn't know the first thing about physics can see it!
If there is an "momentangle" x that you don't know the first thing about and you have a stopped-in-time system that will acquire a value; you have to assume that x can be any number only as long as it is an integer from within that system.
But "any angle" means "any point of observation". You can still write the complete "proton" as a series of integers, except their BIT position is random. Here is a proton, again, with ragged ends:
QUOTE (->
| QUOTE |
0110110110... 0101010101... 0111111011... 0100010100... 0111101111... 0101010101... 0110110110... 0101010101... 0111111111... 1000000000... 0111111111... 0101010101... 0110110110... 0101010101... 0111101111... 0100010100... 0111111011... 0101010101... 0110110110... ... |
I can *see* why it has a "half spin"... I just put it there, didn't I?
So I can see an angle as the "momentum" and that is the closest thing I will ever get to understanding it. The best way to get a better estimate of what "momentum" is, if and when you get a minimal information set, is to double the value of your informational system. Since the distance of my informational set above will never go over 9 (because I didn't bother to write it) the "radius" of that "atom" is 18 (plus a fraction of the value of the infinitesimal 10000000000000...)
As you can see, I don't see any "force" or "gravity" as both would be impossible in a system stopped in time. I can imagine "electricity", though. Of course I can imagine it. It's just the coordinate 101010101010... and that is it.
(I am running to the caves right this minute because I don't know the first thing about "electricity", I have no way of understanding it in any other way, and there is no possibility that I will ever change my view on that which I do not understand: how could I?!)
But hte question was why can't I have a more accurate prediction for "momentum" when I have enough information about a system. I can too!
If a "spin" stopped in time (within a system) can reduced to an angle, the "momentum" will be predicted within a cone. I don't see why no one saw it yet.
The reason is very clear! Anyone who doesn't know the first thing about physics can see it!
If there is an "momentangle" x that you don't know the first thing about and you have a stopped-in-time system that will acquire a value; you have to assume that x can be any number only as long as it is an integer from within that system.
But "any angle" means "any point of observation". You can still write the complete "proton" as a series of integers, except their BIT position is random. Here is a proton, again, with ragged ends:
111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111...
101010101010101011010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010...
0110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110...
10101010101010101101010101101010101101010101101010101101010101010...
011110111101111011110111101111011110111101111011110111101111011110111...
0001010001010001010001010001010001010001010001010001010001010001...
0111111011111101111110111111011111101111110111111011111101111110111111...
101010101010101011010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010...
110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110...
It is perfectly obvious that the "face" of the proton switched places. Because of the symmetry of the codes, it is obvious that it appeared suddenly somewhere else. If it weren't so, the atom, made of *forms* floating in *space*, would fall apart because "moving" parts within an atom are required to not break symmetry.
But it is also perfectly obvious that the place the momentangle can be found is where the face is supposed to be, and the face of the atom is right besides the line that reads a "trivial 1" followed by a series of unending zeros. The "randomness" that followed then had strict rules, since a 10 logically ORed with a 01 would never leave you with a zero. We correct that so that all 2's are properly aligned with themselves, 3's aligned with themselves, and 5's etc.... we can shift any of these coordinates only as long as all of their pure multiples are shifted along:
QUOTE
11111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111...
1010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010...
0110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110...
1010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010......
11110111101111011110111101111011110111101111011110111101111011110111...
101000101000101000101000101000101000101000101000101000101000101000101000...
111111011111101111110111111011110111111011111101111110111111011111101111110...
1010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010......
0110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110...
Prime qualities make it absolutely certain that there WILL be an alignment somewhere. Math handles that relatively easy -but I don't do any. It is a certainty that there will be a 1 followed by a series of zeros somewhere here. It happens to be in the 40th position at the resolution of 9 bits, above, but it could be anywhere else -as long as the math follows the rules of multiples, of course. (I am not touching math!)
I don't see why that is not enough for anyone to narrow down a "momentum" to a certain degree of accuracy once a minimal informational system is up: prediction should be a bit easier. (Is "momentum as an angle" that chaotic at those levels?!)
I don't see how anything I said could possibly be incompatible with this:
QUOTE (->
| QUOTE |
11111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111111... 1010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010... 0110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110... 1010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010...... 11110111101111011110111101111011110111101111011110111101111011110111... 101000101000101000101000101000101000101000101000101000101000101000101000... 111111011111101111110111111011110111111011111101111110111111011111101111110... 1010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010101010...... 0110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110110...
|
Prime qualities make it absolutely certain that there WILL be an alignment somewhere. Math handles that relatively easy -but I don't do any. It is a certainty that there will be a 1 followed by a series of zeros somewhere here. It happens to be in the 40th position at the resolution of 9 bits, above, but it could be anywhere else -as long as the math follows the rules of multiples, of course. (I am not touching math!)
I don't see why that is not enough for anyone to narrow down a "momentum" to a certain degree of accuracy once a minimal informational system is up: prediction should be a bit easier. (Is "momentum as an angle" that chaotic at those levels?!)
I don't see how anything I said could possibly be incompatible with this:
particle spin is uniquely a quantum phenomenon, different than human scale angular momentum. Its value is fixed and independent of particle mass or angular velocity. "
Or this:
QUOTE
As a qualitative concept, the spin vector is often handy because it is easy to picture classically. For instance, quantum mechanical spin can exhibit phenomena analogous to classical gyroscopic effects. For example, one can exert a kind of "torque" on an electron by putting it in a magnetic field (the field acts upon the electron's intrinsic magnetic dipole moment — see the following section). The result is that the spin vector undergoes precession, just like a classical gyroscope.
QUOTE (->
| QUOTE |
| As a qualitative concept, the spin vector is often handy because it is easy to picture classically. For instance, quantum mechanical spin can exhibit phenomena analogous to classical gyroscopic effects. For example, one can exert a kind of "torque" on an electron by putting it in a magnetic field (the field acts upon the electron's intrinsic magnetic dipole moment — see the following section). The result is that the spin vector undergoes precession, just like a classical gyroscope. |
My problem is how to see it as a particle with a defined position and velocity.
Of a whole system, not as a single particle thing, I can fake it, and I just did, in fact. It can have a "face" (position and velocity) but can't have a "momentum" until the randomnesses of the model-system you have are calculated.
QUOTE
Spin becomes yet another 'property' that we concluded as existing and true but that we can not treat as we would when describing the spin of f ex earth
The Earth's "face" would be Greenwich Meridian when it faces its direction 90 degrees from the Sun, as if the face had a place where it points to the future. It's just as arbitrary.
QUOTE (->
| QUOTE |
| Spin becomes yet another 'property' that we concluded as existing and true but that we can not treat as we would when describing the spin of f ex earth |
The Earth's "face" would be Greenwich Meridian when it faces its direction 90 degrees from the Sun, as if the face had a place where it points to the future. It's just as arbitrary.
Which doesn't stop spin from being able to be manipulated though.
http://www.scienceagogo.com/news/200111281...trunc_sys.shtmlI also don't see how anything I said could possibly conflict with what is in this link.
QUOTE
If you treated it as a very small replica of a 'earth' one could easily expect it to react by changing it spin depending on the direction of a magnetic field.
Then that would mean that the earth would change its magnetic field if the spin of the Sun changed?! I am lost here
It's kind of not-in-my-field...

I mean, if an innocent series of 1's is a "border" for an "atom", it's perfectly clear that the next-in-line infinitesimal border will be made of 10 repeated forever but I don't know what "10 repeated forever" is supposed to mean in something as large as a whole planet yet.
QUOTE (->
| QUOTE |
| If you treated it as a very small replica of a 'earth' one could easily expect it to react by changing it spin depending on the direction of a magnetic field. |
Then that would mean that the earth would change its magnetic field if the spin of the Sun changed?! I am lost here
It's kind of not-in-my-field...

I mean, if an innocent series of 1's is a "border" for an "atom", it's perfectly clear that the next-in-line infinitesimal border will be made of 10 repeated forever but I don't know what "10 repeated forever" is supposed to mean in something as large as a whole planet yet.
And if you look at is a wave?
Read
about spin here.
Here is the abstract:
QUOTE
It is shown how the spin of the electron and other charged particles arises out of the quantum wave structure of matter. Spin is a result of spherical rotation in quantum space of the inward (advanced) spherical quantum wave of an electron at the electron center in order to become the outward (retarded) wave. Wave rotation is required to maintain proper phase relations of the wave amplitudes. The spherical rotation, a unique property of 3-D space, can be described using SU(2) group theory algebra. In the SU(2) algebra, the inward and outward waves of the charged particle are the elements of a Dirac spinor wave function. Thus all charged particles satisfy the Dirac Equation.
Uh, ok...
I don't see how I could possibly be in disagreement with anything the site says: if they say "SU(2) and I say "gyroscopic integers only", we are still talking about the same thing, but I wouldn't dream of changing my narrative for mathemystics. I would have to be insane. I don't have that type of mind structure. However, what brought me to this issue was a misunderstanding that I misunderstood. (Wow, first thing I double-misunderstood today.) I thought magnetic fields were being tuned to actually fast-rotate individual protons/atoms around themselves in addition to the rotation Enthalpy mentioned
QUOTE (->
| QUOTE |
| It is shown how the spin of the electron and other charged particles arises out of the quantum wave structure of matter. Spin is a result of spherical rotation in quantum space of the inward (advanced) spherical quantum wave of an electron at the electron center in order to become the outward (retarded) wave. Wave rotation is required to maintain proper phase relations of the wave amplitudes. The spherical rotation, a unique property of 3-D space, can be described using SU(2) group theory algebra. In the SU(2) algebra, the inward and outward waves of the charged particle are the elements of a Dirac spinor wave function. Thus all charged particles satisfy the Dirac Equation. |
Uh, ok...
I don't see how I could possibly be in disagreement with anything the site says: if they say "SU(2) and I say "gyroscopic integers only", we are still talking about the same thing, but I wouldn't dream of changing my narrative for mathemystics. I would have to be insane. I don't have that type of mind structure. However, what brought me to this issue was a misunderstanding that I misunderstood. (Wow, first thing I double-misunderstood today.) I thought magnetic fields were being tuned to actually fast-rotate individual protons/atoms around themselves in addition to the rotation Enthalpy mentioned
Magnets serve to bend the path of the particles on a loop so that resonating cavities have enough time, over many turns, to give energy to the particles bunches.
and used the word "spin". I wasn't and couldn't be talking about *physics* spin because I wouldn't know the first thing about it. (for that matter, what is wrong with using a laser beam to manipulate that spin?! And would magnetism plus laser be an improvement?!))
I am using you as a sounding board: you had an objection to something and I thought it might help to visualize the "thingies" I do. So SUE ME!
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