Reading this article, two questions kept popping up in my head.
Since it is possible for a child to have blue eyes without either parents having blue eyes, isn't it better to say that all people who have the blue eye gene have a single ancestor?
Also, Is this really the only logical conclusion here? Couldn't multiple lineages develop this mutation at around the same time? If the mutation had an environmental cause it most likely would have been happening to a great deal of people living in the environment that caused it. Hell, it could have even happened as a completely random mutation in more than one place at around the same time.
Am I just ignorant to this subject, or is there validity to my thinking here?